u/Advanced_Emu3430

Does it make sense to anyone why stimulant medications are schedule 2 (higher up on the scale, under the same category as opiates, despite being a first line treatment for ADHD), and benzodiazepines and Z-Drugs are schedule 4?

I think it should be the other way around. I’ve seen more withdrawals/dependence/long term problems with long term benzodiazepines vs long term stimulants used carefully in the right patient (with a full assessment of the diagnosis, no cardiac/substance problems) with the FDA limit in mind…