▲ 188 r/AskHistorians
I've been consuming history of the Wars of this time period and it seemed strange to me how only the British were able to master the art of Naval Warfare in this time period, to the point that French military strategy just assumed they were going to lose at sea anyway. Every battle seemed to be that, even if the British were outnumbered, they were more experienced and better trained, so were able to overpower their enemies that way. However the British weren't the only wealthy empire at the time, and they weren't the first to navigate around the world. Why were they able to be so much better at naval warfare than countries like the Spanish and French who also had global empires?
u/DangerousCyclone — 20 days ago