Resident landlord/head tenant in England asking for £3k council tax after 4 years – am I liable?
Hi all
I would appreciate some advice regarding council tax in my situation.
The person named as the landlord in my tenancy agreement is the same person I have lived with in the flat for the last 4 years. I always paid rent directly to him. He says the “actual” landlord is someone else.
My tenancy agreement says I should pay council tax to the relevant local authority.
I asked him previously when ai first arrived to the UK to register me with the council, but he did not do this.
Last year he asked me to contribute to council tax. I agreed in principle, but said I would prefer to be registered with the council as I wanted the paperwork for the future. He still did not register me.
I am now moving out and he says I owe him almost £3,000, which he says is 50% of the council tax he paid over the years.
I would have much preferred to pay the council directly if I was liable, especially as it would have given me official proof of residence/payment.
The person named as landlord lived in the property with me the whole time.
I am unsure whether this makes me more of a lodger rather than a tenant and If there is a difference even!
I was never registered with the council and never received any communication/bills from them.
I want to be fair because I did live there, and I am not against contributing a fair share if appropriate. However, paying a £3,000 lump sum directly to him without any formal record feels uncomfortable. I would have much preferred to pay monthly or yearly but to the council.
Am I actually legally liable for this £3,000 council tax contribution in this situation?
Thank you