u/Fraben

Just curious. I read before that once you are high risk you’re always considered high risk. In my case, I have some adverse cytogenetics (4:14, 1q).

I was wondering if anyone here had bad mm subclones (del17, 14 translocations, etc.) that, after treatment, were eliminated, and upon relapse, no adverse clones were detected in the BMB?

As if moving from high risk to standard at least for the mutation part of it? Or is it always the mutated clone that's responsible for the relapse in high-risk patients?

Thanks in advance!