Hi all,
I can’t participate in the AJ Bell Manchester Half Marathon anymore so looking to sell my bib and thought i’d check on here if anyone wants it first. i live in the city centre (Deansgate area) so happy to meet up in person to hand over the bib. It’s in Orange wave which is one of the earlier ones so you can go in any wave after that if you don’t want to be in orange. Selling it for what I purchased it for (£50).
Thanks :)
Hello, been producing for around a year now. I have no musical background or theory so please forgive me if this is a simple answer however I cannot seem to understand what is going on here.
I produce house music and I often write most my chord progressions from what I hear in my head and they loop will loop naturally. However, I wrote this chord progression and for some reason I just can't get the groove to loop naturally with a kick on the 1. The only way a 4 to the floor kick seems natural is if it comes in on the '1.15' of the loop shown below. I've tried moving the chord progression around a bit and it still only sounds natural coming in mid-way through the chord like that. I've not come across this before and interested in understanding what is going on music theory wise/why this is the case? Is there some sort of syncopated groove within the chords itself?
The issue is that with the genre I produce its quite important to have a kick on the 1 and if possible would want to alter the chord progression to allow this but not sure if theoretically it can be done?
Any responses/guidance would be very appreciated :)
Hello, been producing for around a year now. I have no musical background or theory so please forgive me if this is a simple answer however I cannot seem to understand what is going on here.
I produce house music and I often write most my chord progressions from what I hear in my head and they loop will loop naturally. However, I wrote this chord progression and for some reason I just can't get the groove to loop naturally with a kick on the 1. The only way a 4 to the floor kick seems natural is if it comes in on the '1.15' of the loop shown below. I've tried moving the chord progression around a bit and it still only sounds natural coming in mid-way through the chord like that. I've not come across this before and interested in understanding what is going on music theory wise/why this is the case? Is there some sort of syncopated groove within the chords itself?
The issue is that with the genre I produce its quite important to have a kick on the 1 and if possible would want to alter the chord progression to allow this but not sure if theoretically it can be done?
Really appreciate any responses/guidance :)
