u/Glass-Kangaroo-4011

The arithmetic obstruction preventing nontrivial cycles in 3n+1 is not affected by comparison to another affine system. I gave a direct proof.

I took the critiques of many, including GandalfPC, no one wants to read a long paper, so it's just a partial proof claiming nothing more than what is proven within. I have taken the time to read the literature, and acknowledged such in prior works. I have left out unnecessary analysis and prose. I have properly defined what is used. I took this seriously so I hope this sub can do the same. The other half will be released once I have completed it.

https://doi.org/10.5281/zenodo.20041988

Within is an arithmetic obstruction to the occurrence of nontrivial cycles. This is a direct proof, no heuristics, no density nor probability or statistics.

I've been working past every counterexample known to the problem, one by one on this journey to proving the answer.

This AMA is to let others voice their known logical obstructions, holes, or general perplexities on the problem.

Link to my current research preprint

I'll also be looking to answer any questions over my own research, and indulge the informal discussion.

So, ask me anything!