u/GuidanceMountain5092

Hi,
I have a signed Deed of Trust giving me a 50% share in a property, but I am not on the mortgage or the Land Registry deeds (the property is in my partner's sole name). Currently, my Deed of Trust is unregistered and "invisible".
If my solicitor registers a Restriction or a Unilateral Notice against the property now:

1. Will this completely stop my partner from selling the house without my consent?
2. Will this stop him from doing a re-mortgage or taking further advances from the bank behind my back?
3. Will it block him from making any major financial decisions regarding the property without me?
   Thank you.

"Location: England, UK"
Hi everyone. My partner is the sole owner on the property title and the mortgage is in his name alone. We have a signed Deed of Trust for equal shares (50/50). The bank recently refused to accept the Deed for their records, so a Form A Restriction is being registered at HM Land Registry based on the Deed.
I would appreciate a clear and direct answer to these specific questions:
Am I fully protected? Does the Form A Restriction completely protect my 50% equitable share in the property capital, despite the bank's rejection of the Deed [A, B]?
Can he make decisions or remortgage alone? Will this restriction legally block him from making major decisions about the property without my consent? Specifically, can he complete a remortgage on his own, or will the lender require my written consent because of the restriction?
Thank you for your direct answers.

Hello If my partner adds me to the mortgage at remortgage in 5 years, but I want to be added now, can I legally be registered in HM Land Registry before
The bank (Nationwide) has already agreed in principle to add me to the mortgage now. My question is: can a solicitor complete the Transfer of Equity to put me on the Land Registry/Title Deeds while keeping the current 5-year fixed rate? My partner thinks we must wait for a remortgage, but I want to be a legal owner now.