In FSA while calculating accruals ratio using balance sheet approach and cashflow approach do we take mod of the value and make it positive or do we take actual value itself?
Hey everyone.
Can anyone explain to me whether we take mod of Baenish M score and Altman Z score or not? Cuz i have seen question where even though the M score was going deeper into negative side but it was still considered to be manipulation of earnings cuz mod of those figures would mean the numbers were going away from 0. Same with altman z score as well.
Can anyone clear this up?