u/InternetDady

PARAMETERS: Spin echo T1 & FSE T2 weighted transverse, coronal and sagittal images of the pelvis followed by axial FSE IR & Sagittal T1 water images with slice thickness 3mm.

FINDINGS: A long coursed T1 hypo and T2 hyperintense fistula is seen in the (L) perianal region at 5 O’clock position had extra-sphincteric course associated with T2FS hyperintense inflammatory changes around the tract. The tract gets ramified, where medially secondary ramified tract pierce the anal sphincter and open into the anal canal at 6 O’clock position. The supero-laterally directed ramified tract pierce the (L) elevator ani muscle. No horse shoe appearance is seen. The tract shows DWI restriction with low ADC value. The length of the tract measures 9-10 cm.

Loculated collection seen around the external opening of the tract in (L) side of perineum/gluteal region.

The ischiorectal fossa is clear.

Pelvic muscles reveal normal morphology and signal characteristics.

IMPRESSION: TYPE-V – FIA : Extra-sphincteric fistula in (L) perianal region at 5 O’clock position had secondary ramification and pierce the (L) leavator ani muscle as described.

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I had surgery in 2024 to treat, remove my anal fistula. The MRI report I’m uploading is an old MRI from before my surgery, so it does not necessarily describe my current condition.

Today, I’m experiencing a little bit of pain again in the same area, which has made me worried that the fistula might have returned.

I’m sharing the old MRI report because I want to understand what my previous fistula looked like and whether anyone here has had a similar experience after surgery.

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I had fistula surgery in 2024 and now I’m feeling pain again. Can someone please explain my old MRI?

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