u/Legitimate-Inside549

Hi! I am a clinical manager for a mental health therapy practice. We have recently brought in a contracted PMHNP to provide med management services. We are loving it and want to make sure he’s being correctly reimbursed.

We do have a great biller, but we’re all using these codes for the first time so I’m hoping to get input from experienced practitioners

My main question is about the intake:
90792 vs 99205. Can someone explain to me when it’s appropriate to use each? Our NP is strictly providing med management, no therapy. Many of the clients he’s seeing are active clients of the practice so they have existing 90791 in their chart already.