Don't know if this is appropriate for r/legal, so I thought I'd ask here: can someone's wife argue that because the husband didn't sign a prenup before they got married, the wife (or in this case, future ex wife) can just ask for a certain amount in the divorce?
Is that even possible?
North Carolina resident here & the title is pretty self explanatory. I don't know if I can pick one single thing myself (or maybe I have an idea what I think my answer would be, but I don't wanna say it because I'm afraid of violating the rules of the subreddit), so I'll let y'all answer instead.
North Carolina resident here & the title is pretty self explanatory. I don't know if I can pick one single thing myself (or maybe I have an idea what I think my answer would be, but I don't wanna say it because I'm afraid of violating the rules of the subreddit), so I'll let y'all answer instead.
Hi, I apologize if this is against the rules of the subreddit., but: North Carolina resident here with a unofficial background in healthcare & an interest in law, but not sure how to get into it (networking is hard because I can't drive at the moment & I'm also unemployed, so funds are tight). Any suggestions?