Letting agent says our tenancy terms are “no longer valid” after Renters’ Rights Act change and wants 2 months notice despite signed 1 month clause
Hi all,
Looking for some advice regarding a tenancy dispute in England.
We signed a 12-month AST in June 2025. The tenancy agreement specifically states:
- one month’s written notice is required to end the tenancy at the end of the fixed term, and
- one clear calendar month’s notice is required during the contractual periodic tenancy after the fixed term.
Our tenancy was due to end on 20 June 2026, so on 19 May 2026 we emailed the letting agent giving notice that we would be leaving on 20 June.
The letting agent has now replied saying that because of the Renters’ Rights Act changes on 1 May 2026:
- all tenancies automatically became periodic,
- our tenancy terms are “no longer valid,”
- and we are now legally required to give two months’ notice aligned with the rent date.
They are also saying we may remain liable for rent beyond 20 June unless the landlord agrees to “consider” a shorter notice period.
Our issue is:
If the law only changed on 1 May 2026, it would have been literally impossible for us to comply with a two-month notice period for a tenancy ending on 20 June 2026, because we would have needed to give notice before 20 April — before the law allegedly came into force.
We were also:
- never informed beforehand that our notice period had changed,
- never asked to sign any updated agreement,
- and only found out after serving notice.
What makes this more confusing is that the GOV.UK guidance for tenants says:
- tenants normally give 2 months’ notice,
- BUT landlords and tenants can agree in writing to a shorter notice period.
Our tenancy agreement already contains a signed written one-month notice clause.
So my questions are:
- Does the Renters’ Rights Act automatically override existing written shorter-notice clauses?
- Can a landlord/agent legally rely on a notice requirement that tenants had no practical ability to comply with?
- Is the agent correct that our tenancy clauses are simply “no longer valid”?
- Would a court or deposit adjudicator likely consider the impossibility/fairness issue here?
We’re speaking to Citizens Advice and Private Rented Service as well, but wanted to see whether anyone familiar with housing law has insight into how transitional situations like this are being interpreted.
Thanks.
Edit: We are located in north east England