Difference between nr-axial SpA vs AS?
Hi everyone,
I’m trying to better understand the difference between axial spondyloarthritis (axSpA) and ankylosing spondylitis (AS). My rheumatologist diagnosed me with spondyloarthritis and ordered an SI joint MRI after my X-rays showed irregularity about the SI joints. The MRI reports sclerosis, erosions, and sacroiliitis.
I’m confused because I keep reading that AS is the “radiographic” form of axial SpA, but if MRI already shows erosions/sclerosis and the X-ray showed SI irregularities, how do doctors determine whether it’s considered:
- non-radiographic axial SpA vs
- ankylosing spondylitis/radiographic axial SpA?
Is the distinction mainly based on whether the X-ray findings are considered “definite” sacroiliitis under criteria, even if MRI already shows inflammatory damage?
Would especially appreciate hearing from anyone who was HLA-B27 negative or diagnosed early!