u/UberEinstein99

▲ 2 r/grammar+1 crossposts

Is a phrase still considered a double entendre if both meanings converge?

Like if someone wanted to rob a bank, but accidentally shot them selves in the foot, leading to them getting caught, is the phase “they shot themselves in the foot” still a double entendre?

Sure, they are the reason for their own downfall, as the phrase figuratively means, but that is because they literally shot themselves in the foot, as the phrase literally means.

When the figurative meaning and literal meanings converge, is the phrase still considered a double entendre, or just a single entendre or something else entirely?

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u/UberEinstein99 — 3 days ago