u/Yuckpuddle60

Ephesians 2:14-16, 18 NKJV [14] For He Himself is our peace, who has made both one, and has broken down the middle wall of separation, [15] having abolished in His flesh the enmity, that is, the law of commandments contained in ordinances, so as to create in Himself one new man from the two, thus making peace, [16] and that He might reconcile them both to God in one body through the cross, thereby putting to death the enmity. [18] For through Him we both have access by one Spirit to the Father.

Seemingly, the message is that Jes us is abolishing the commandments that have led to the ordinances followed by Israel.

Specifically, I am trying to reconcile these passages with Jesus saying that not one jot or tittle shall pass till all be fulfilled.

Matthew 5:17-19 NKJV [17] “Do not think that I came to destroy the Law or the Prophets. I did not come to destroy but to fulfill. [18] For assuredly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle will by no means pass from the law till all is fulfilled. [19] Whoever therefore breaks one of the least of these commandments, and teaches men so, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven; but whoever does and teaches them, he shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.

Does this mean that everything was fulfilled after Christ's crucification, death, and resurrection? I am trying to make sense of these two passages they seem to be at odds with one another.

Your thoughts are appreciated.

Are there specific laws pertaining to handling death in the family, such as the body having to be buried vs. cremated?

Are their specific funeral and mourning rites that have to be observed or avoided?

Studying in the book of John and I'm perplexed by the situation with Jesus and the adulteress. John 8:3-11 outlines how a woman, seemingly caught in the act of adultery was brought forth before the people, elders, and Jesus. The text makes it seem like she was caught red handed.

Now the punishment according to the law is death by stoning. Jesus obviously knows this, and also knows there must be at least two witnesses to levy accusations to bring charges. He however convicts the people of their own guilt of sins to withdraw any accusations leaving no accusers. No accusers means no charges.

Is it just that the people feared Jesus, that he knew their sins, so they didn't proceed with the stoning?

It says, "John 8:10-11 KJV [10] When Jesus had lifted up himself, and saw none but the woman, he said unto her, Woman, where are those thine accusers? hath no man condemned thee? [11] She said, No man, Lord. And Jesus said unto her, Neither do I condemn thee: go, and sin no more."

So were the accusations actually false? What's going on here? Jesus clearly states that he doesn't condemn her so either she is innocent or the charges or he is simply extending God's grace and mercy upon her.

If it's the latter, does that mean that the punishments for sin, as stipulated in the Torah no longer apply and are washed out by grace (the law-breaking acts themselves are still sin obviously)?

Is it that Jesus has covered all sin with grace and a "stay of punishment" until the day of judgment?

What's everyone's take on this because I'm confused.

Hello all, may God's blessings be upon you. I'm hoping you can help with my understanding of these verses. I'm reading thru Luke and I'm a bit confused about what Jesus is trying to convey here.

Why is the Master commending the steward for trying to "rip him off"? Is Jesus saying that if you're going to do unrighteousness then it's better to be in favor of other unbelievers at least rather than despised by all?

Is he saying that we should simply not be overly concerned with money and use it to help others while where still living these pre-kingdom lives?

Is he saying that if unbelievers can recognize clever uses for money for their advantage, then believers should be more "clever" by helping others with our money because this gives us advantage and treasures everlasting that are stored up in heaven?

I haven't found any explanations that have been totally satisfying yet.

Please provide your thoughts.

I basically always keep a buzz cut, and use a beard and mustache clippers/trimmer with no guard (shortest setting). It's okay but it's fairly narrow and doesn't feel like it gets as close as it could. Plus it feels like it takes a lot of time and passes to get the closes trim.

Can you recommend a high quality set that would get me the closes possible trim (don't want to use a razor)?