Anyone ever overminused someone with a contact lens only to over-refract and prescribe spectacles over the top?
I am looking to see what other Optometrists' thoughts are on this. I am UK based so we practice quite differently to US based Optometrists but I'd be interested in, and would welcome opinions from either side of the pond.
Basically, the rationale behind this idea is as follows:
Suppose you have someone with reduced visual acuity. For example, a teenager with nystagmus from childhood. Let's say, this person has certain opportunities closed to them due to the reduced visual acuity. For example, px is narrowly unable to meet the legal driving standard with a normal spectacle rx. The logic is, if you give the px a -12.00D contact lens, and then over refract and prescribe, let's say, +10.50D spectacles to wear over the top, then that would magnify the image considerably, potentially improving the VA by anywhere between 10-15% due to the magnification.
Has anyone every tried this and had it work? I have tried it on staff at my workplace and it does improve VA by around 10% vs just a specatcale rx, and subjectively the staff I have tested it on say the letters are "a million times" easier to read. But that's the test room and not the real-world though...
At the same time, I'm also aware there are some obvious inconveniences and less-than-ideal downsides to this like cosmetics, complexity etc... But let's say someone really really values driving and was motivated to make this work, do you think this is a viable solution in the real world or is this a bad idea?
Looking for other thoughts and any insights people may have to offer as to why this may or may not work, and what considerations to factor in that may be easy to miss.
I'm aware it's a complex system and I'm aware it's not less-than-ideal and cosmetically poor... But what else? Thoughts...?