u/hope_is_dead_

There are a couple of math textbooks that use equivalence classes for indefinite integrals.
Here is how they usually do it: F ~ G if F - G is locally constant
and then ∫f = [F]

Isn't that always superior? Why don't we always use this notation? I suppose you could say that "C" is not a real number, but a (locally) constant function instead and then there would be no difference at all.