60 y/o male with these findings, H/o HTN, DM.
I understand the workup I have to do in this case, but what is the disposition of this patient?
Is it a ED referral or outpatient management?
Is it correct that new possible HF is ED referral, but already diagnosed HF with mild exacerbation is probably an outpatient followup?
How many of you actually wait/patients let you wait 10 days to start thinking about antibiotics for ABRS?
Patient on 400mg ibuprofen 4-5 times a day for his RA. He's been using it for everyday for past 3 months prescribed by his rheumatologist.
His recent labs show Cr went from 1(baseline) to 2.
What's your next step other than stopping the NSAID?
Any particular tips/tricks for managing vague epigastric discomfort non responsive to PPIs, negative endoscopy? Do you frequently start TCAs or refer to GI?
And any particular drug that works well for IBS that switches from constipation to diarrhea predominant frequently
What do you address in post hospitalisation visits?
1)70 u/o male admitted to hospital for possible syncope and fall. Everything came out negative, now here to followup post hospital visit.
2)50yo male with CAP, now resolved and completed abx. Similarly a female with a UTI/pyelo?
I just want to know why is this a specific visit type if the condition has resolved and what should be addressed in these visits if other conditions are stable
Do you order any tests for 70yo male PMH DM HTN CAD, scheduled for TEP hernia repair?
Edit: Labs WNL. Rest his RCRI comes out to be 0 as it's technical extra peritoneal repair