How could Dan Jones’ omit Rosamund from his Henry II narrative in The Plantagenets?
I must first say that I am relatively new to this part of history. I started reading Dan Jones' "Plantagenets" and I am now towards the end of Edward III. I went to my local bookstore and found a book called "Europe: A History" by Norman Davies and I am reading the medieval section. I was very surprised to read that Eleanor of Aquitaine separated from Henry II because of his liaison with Rosamund of Godstow.
Reading that, I was shocked because I feel Dan Jones should have at least mentioned the liaison briefly even in passing. I remember Eleanor leaving and taking Richard seemed rather abrupt and it didn't make sense why she would leave. Having just learned about Rosamund, her separation now makes complete sense.
Am I misunderstanding something here? I'm confused since it appears to be significant especially since that’s the start of when he starts dealing with family politics with his own sons (and Eleanor). And Dan Jones randomly does mention how Joan of Kent had two husbands (during the beginning of Edward III’s Order of the Garter) which seems like a tangential fact. So surely Rosamund & Eleanor should have been owed a sentence or two!
Please respectfully educate me! Many thanks!