
Do you think the 'Latin Empire' was a 'colonial' state?
Of course when I say colonial I mean the colonialism of the Norman occupation of England rather than that of the 15th century onwards or of the German expansionism into Eastern Europe and the Baltic. It seems clear that they tried to have some continuity with the Byzantium of old, but they also effectively inserted a new elite of foreign Latin lords among other discriminatory policies. Ironically, I would go so far as to say that the Latins were more tame with regards to their new acquisitions when compared to their Norman counterparts (the harrying of the north is a big yikes).