Louis X side-eyeing his uncle Charles, Count of Valois

Louis X side-eyeing his uncle Charles, Count of Valois

"Say, nephew, I got crowned once too, you know."

"Yeah, with a fucking hat."

u/AnantaPurima — 2 days ago
▲ 70 r/EdwardII+1 crossposts

Isabella of France was almost certainly blonde

Kathryn Warner has, over the years, made several quite categorical remarks about our ability to reconstruct Isabella of France's appearance. In 2013, she stated that "(n)o source records Isabella’s appearance, other than that she was very beautiful... We have no idea whether her hair was blonde or black or chestnut brown or auburn, whether she was slender or plump, short or tall, pale-skinned or darker, whether she had blue or green or hazel or brown eyes." Having looked at the available evidence, however, I've concluded that this degree of agnosticism is unwarranted. We actually are able to reconstruct, with a fair degree of certainty, aspects of her appearance, and one of those aspects is her hair colour. There are two main pieces of evidence I wish to present in this regard:

1. Isabella is explicitly referred to as being blonde in at least one English source dating from her lifetime.

And it is a very famous source indeed, one you would have almost certainly encountered before if you have explored the historiography of Edward II's life and reign before: the Lament. The relevant description occurs in the eighth stanza:

Parti m'ount un ju saunz joie;

de tel tristour my qoer se pleint

De cele est qe trover quidoye

fyn loialté, vers moi se feint.

Dieux! come bien amay la bloye;

mais ore est l'estencele esteint

fyn amour; pur ceo ma joie

s'en est alee, come est de meint. *

The fifth line reads, quite clearly, as "Oh God, how much did I love the blonde one!" Those who are familiar only with Paul Studer's translation of the poem, in which the relevant word is rendered simply as "fair", might assume it simply means "fair" in the sense of "beautiful" or "comely." Not so. La bloye is, unambigously, a reference to hair colour. When used as a noun-phrase, the Anglo-Norman dictionary explicitly translates bloi as "blond-haired person." It is true that blond hair, or crine bloie, was an element of courtly descriptio, one of the set of conventional features with which the domnas of courtly love poetry or the heroines of chivalric romances were described with as a matter of course. But there is an obvious difference between giving a fictional female character a specific hair colour in line with contemporary beauty standards and describing a famous living individual, who the reader is supposed to be able to identify, with a hair colour she did not have. If Isabella had had an unflattering hair colour, the author could simply have not made any mention to it at all. The Chronique métrique of Geoffrey of Paris describes Isabella as being “la plus belle des belles", so, to me, the most parsimonious explanation of the poem's phrase is that Isabella was indeed blonde, and this was one of the ways in which her appearance aligned with the beauty standards of the day.

There's an additional point to be made about the language of the poem itself. Anglo-Norman courtly love poetry would have had a readership that skewed heavily towards the societal elite. The people of England outside of the orbit of court still overwhelmingly spoke English. A substantial portion of the people who could even read this poem would have also seen Isabella in person on public occaisons. It remains, of course, possible this description was a mere idealisation with no relation to her actual appearance, but I really do not find that particularly probable.

2. Her father was explicitly described as blond too, and Geoffrey of Paris draws a direct connection between Isabella and her father's good looks

Philip IV is explicitly described, in an anonymous royal chronicle written c. 1342, when he was definitely still in living memory, as having been flavus, rubicundus et candidus et decorus; which Elizabeth A. R. Brown translates as “golden-blond, ruddy, fair, and seemly." While this may not seem all that relevant to Isabella, given that genetic inheritance is not deterministic, we do have a contemporary source that gives a fairly strong indication that Isabella did indeed resemble her father, and it is, once again, the Chronique métrique. Right after describing the dramatic incident in which Edward II saved Isabella's life after a fire broke out in their silken pavillion in Pontoise, Geoffrey of Paris, apropos of nothing, writes:

La noble et sage dame Ysabiau,

Son père des biax le plus biau;

Si est bien droite égalité,

Que bel engendroit grant beauté.

Which I would translate as:

"The noble and wise lady Isabeau,

her father, the fairest of the fair;

It is only right and proper,

that so fair a man should beget such beauty."

Notice that Geoffrey is using the grammatically masculine version of the same phrase he used previously for Isabella: the fairest of the fair. This is Geoffrey stating, in no uncertain terms, that Isabella got her good looks from her father. If her father was blond, as we have fairly good reason to believe, we have a good reason for taking the description of her in the Lament at face value. As much as it bums me out, as a Raven-haired Isabella headcanoner, I see no reason to doubt the preponderance of evidence here.

*As a side note, Studer translates the relevant line as "Fair Isabel I dearly loved" based on the version of the poem found in Longleat Manuscript 26, in which the line reads "beux tant amay la bloye." I have instead used the version of the poem found in the Royal manuscripts, in which the line reads as above. Studer and Aspin take "beux" as being a hypocorism of "Isabeaux" and translate it as "Isabel" on that basis. I, however, concur with Smallwood's critcism of this choice: "Studer's emendation from MS Beux or Deux relied chiefly on romantic appeal, and R's line must be preferred. It has never been shown that Beux was a known pet-form of Isabel."

u/AnantaPurima — 2 days ago

The Holy Roman Emperor Charles IV and his shockingly innacurate account of Isabella's invasion

Charles of Luxembourg, King of Bohemia and Count of Luxembourg, was elected King of the Romans in 1346 and crowned Holy Roman Emperor as Charles IV in 1355; his daughter Anne of Bohemia later became the first wife of Richard II. He was distinctly unusual among medieval European monarchs for having written, at least in part, his own autobiography, the Vita Caroli Quarti. While his intent in chronicling his life was clearly to provide spiritual edification and wisdom to his successors, as well as to carefully curate his own image for posterity, it nevertheless affords us a rare opportunity to access the interior life of someone who was not only alive at the same time as Edward II and his family, but who would have also been an eyewitness to some of the most momentous events in Edward II's reign. As a young boy, he had been sent by his father, John I of Bohemia, to France as a ward of Charles IV's, accompanying his aunt Marie, who became Charles' short-lived second wife after his long-defunct marriage to Blanche of Burgundy was finally annulled. It was there that Charles IV became his godfather, conferred upon him the name Charles (his birth name had been Wenceslaus), and arranged his marriage to Charles IV's much younger first cousin, Blanche of Valois, daughter of his uncle, Charles, count of Valois, by his third wife, Mahaut of Châtillon. Charles was present as a boy of nine or ten when Isabella of France arrived to negotiate with her brother an end to the War of St Sardos, and when Edward of Windsor, only a few years older than him, arrived to perform homage to his uncle as his suzerain for the lands of Gascony. He would have witnessed, or at the very least have heard of, Isabella's infamous refusal to return to England so long as her husband remained in the company of Hugh le Despenser, as documented in the Vita Edwardi Secundi. Indeed, we know Charles was aware of these events, as he actually mentions them in the Vita Caroli Quarti. This is what he says about Isabella and her son:

"There was a great conflict between the king of England at that time and the king of France. The king of England had married the sister of the aforementioned king, but had driven her out of England, together with his first-born son, Edward. She came to her brother and remained in exile in France with her son. The King of France was angry at the expulsion of his sister and her son, and he asked my father-in-law Charles [of Valois], his uncle, to redress the shame which had been inflicted upon their family. The latter, when he had gathered an army, invaded Aquitaine and conquered almost all of it, except for Bordeaux and some other fortifications and castles. When Charles returned in triumph to France, he gave the daughter of his daughter, the countess of Hainaut (the sister of my wife), in marriage to the son of the aforementioned king of England, Edward, who was still in exile; and then he sent him, together with his escort, to England. He prevailed over his father, took him captive, deposed him, and set the crown upon his own head. That same year, the father of the new king was murdered while in prison."

I have posted this exact excerpt once before, but it still utterly floors me just how... wrong he is. Keep in mind that Charles of Bohemia was a first-hand witness of these events. He knew Charles IV and Charles, count of Valois personally. He was a boy at the time, yes, writing decades later, and no one would expect his memory to be perfect, but he doesn't even get the broad shape right. He says the War of St Sardos was begun in retribution for the expulsion of Isabella and Edward of Windsor from the English court; in reality, the War of St Sardos began when a French bastide was constructed in Gascony and torn down by the local populace, providing a pretext for Charles IV to confiscate Gascony and Ponthieu after Edward II had already been prevaricating about coming to France to perform homage for those lands. Isabella was, of course, sent to negotiate a peace settlement, and Edward of Windsor was sent to perform homage on his father's behalf. He also paints his own father-in-law Charles, count of Valois as the main architect of the deposition and the Hainault alliance. In reality he had already died in 1325, before any of that had even occured. He characterises Edward of Windsor as the primary force behind the invasion once it reached England, which, obviously, couldn't be further from the truth. He also says Edward II was killed within the same year as the invasion. Again, simply wrong.

Part of me wonders if his characterisation of Edward III is coloured by political hindsight. He and Edward III were not allies by any stretch of the imagination. Edward III was a close ally of Charles' great nemesis, the Holy Roman Emperor Louis IV, who conferred on him the imperial vicarate. Charles and his father John also remained loyal to the French during the Hundred Years' War. John actually died fighting on the French side at the Battle of Crécy, so he definitely had a personal stake in the matter. But if he was deliberetely trying to cast Edward III in the worst light possible, why play up the role of his own father-in-law, Charles, count of Valois, to do so? Why unnecessarily taint his first wife's father by association? Is it possible this is just reflects the general outline of what Charles IV of France was telling people, or what rumours were spreading around the French court, even amongst people who should have been easily able to check? Was Isabella herself possibly misrepresenting her own situation to people? That hardly seems possible with her public statements and her having dressed in widow's weeds. Surely Charles of Bohemia would have at least seen her wearing those clothes at least once? Perhaps it is simply Charles relying on garbled memories from decades prior, but speaking at least for myself, I can remember events that occured when I was about nine or ten with much greater accuracy than this. I don't think having accurate memories from around ten is that abnormal.

What do you think was going on?

u/AnantaPurima — 1 month ago

If I had a nickel...

If I had a nickel for every time I had been oddly charmed by a historical ruler who was criticised for largely abnegating the responsibilities of rulership to pursue his own ideosyncratic hobbies, who developed all-consuming attachments to male favourites he subsequently raised far above the stations of their births, his last favourite in particular being a deeply ruthless and unscrupulous man who served as his royal chamberlain, who allegedly either was the ruler's lover himself or who pimped out his wife to be his lover, the ruler's reign ultimately ending in catastrophe, with him being overthrown and murdered, I'd have two nickels. Which is not a lot but it's weird that it happened twice.

Of course, in the Byzantine Emperor Michael III's case, he was betrayed and brutally murdeted by his own ruthless and unscrupulous male favourite, Basil the Macedonian, after Michael began turning his attentions towards another male favourite. Say what you will anout Hugh le Despenser the Younger, at least he never betrayed Edward II, even when the ship was going down.

u/AnantaPurima — 1 month ago
▲ 18 r/houseofplantagenet+1 crossposts

No, Lord Berkeley did not deny having heard of Edward II's death

One of the main pieces of evidence supporting the hypothesis that the former Edward II did not die on September 21st 1327 (which we might call the "Edwardus Redivivus" hypothesis) concerns Lord Berkeley, who wrote the letter first announcing Sir Edward of Carnarvon's death. Sir Thomas Gurney delivered that letter to Edward III, who was attending Parliament at Lincoln, on September 23rd 1327, after which the King immediately began disseminating the news. Yet by his own later admission, Lord Berkeley (so the story goes) did not actually know that the former king had died when he wrote that letter. When asked at the 1330 Parliament at Westminster how he wished to acquit himself of the death of the former king, who had been in his custody at Berkeley Castle at the time of his alleged death, Lord Berkeley stated that he "was never an accomplice, a helper or a procurer in his death, nor did he ever know of his death until this present parliament." According to Ian Mortimer, the foremost advocate for this hypothesis, "this [proves] that those who believe Edward II died in Berkeley Castle are doing so on the basis of an unsubstantiated message sent in bad faith." If this account holds, then the traditional narrative of the former Edward II's death would indeed face a significant evidentiary problem. Professor Roy Martin Haines, however, countered that the relevant statement of Lord Berkeley's, as recorded in the Rolls of Parliament, "nor did he ever know of his death until this present parliament" (in Latin: "nec unquam scivit de morte sua usque in presenti parliamento"), ought to be understood as Lord Berkeley saying that he knew nothing about or concerning the death. Defenders of the Edwardus Redivivus hypothesis counter that this amounts to overinterpreting the text to conform it to their desired interpretation of Lord Berkeley's words. Fundamentally, this is a disagreement about the meaning of the phrase de morte sua in the original Latin. Who, then, has the right of it?

With regard to the Latin itself, Haines. Quite unambiguously so, too. The specific construction of the phrase, with the preposition de paired with the noun mors declined in the ablative singular, is primarily employed in a topical sense, being used to indicate the subject matter of the relevant sentence. It carries the sense of on, about, concerning or with regard to. This usage is especially common in the titles of literary works to designate the subjects they treat: Caesar's Commentarii de Bello Gallico ('Commentaries on the Gallic War'), Cicero's De amicitia ('Concerning Friendship'), Boethius' De consolatione philosophiae ('Concerning the Consolation of Philosophy'). This usage absolutely survived into mediaeval Latin. St Aelred of Rievaulx, riffing on Cicero, wrote his own De spirituali amicitia in the 12th century, while Alain de l'Isle wrote his own De planctu Naturae some decades later. In the 14th century itself, Lord Berkeley's own contemporary, the great Augustinian philosopher Thomas Bradwardine, who served as Edward III's confessor and later briefly as Archbishop of Canterbury, wrote his magnum opus under the title De Causa Dei contra Pelagium. Of course, this usage was not merely restricted to the titles of works. Take, for example, St Jerome's translation of Mark 13:32 in the Latin Vulgate: "De die autem illo vel hora nemo scit, neque angeli in caelo, neque Filius, nisi Pater." This example is particularly important because it uses an inflected form of the same verb found in Lord Berkeley's statement. Scit is the third-person present active indicative of the verb scio, while scivit is the third-person perfect active indicative of scio. Scit therefore means 'knows', while scivit means 'knew', with the same de + ablative construction we've been discussing. This is important to note, because this verse is Christ stating that about that day or hour (i.e. the day of judgement) no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father. He is absolutely not stating that only the Father knows if such a day will ever come at all. That the day will come is presupposed. It is specifically facts about the day of judgement, such as when exactly it will occur, that are unknown. While the example of Mark does not constitute definitive proof of what Lord Berkeley meant, it does show that there is nothing inherently belaboured or strained in the Latin about Haines' translation of the phrase. Indeed, based on the construction, it would be the default assumption.

Still, by mediaeval Latin, the de + ablative construction had evolved to be capable of carrying other senses, even if the topical sense remained the primary usage. For example, one of the Gregorian chant settings for the Catholic Mass developed in the mediaeval period was referred to as the Missa de Angelis, meaning "Mass of the Angels", not "Mass concerning the Angels", even though in older classical Latin this would simply be rendered with the genitive plural: Missa Angelorum. So, it is not impossible that nec unquam scivit de morte sua is employing the de + ablative structure in a non-topical manner, even if that is less likely. To determine in which sense de morte sua is intended, therefore, we need to look at the way the construction is employed in the same Parliamentary enrolment Lord Berkeley's quote is found in, to see if we can establish whether the clerk uses it typically in the topical sense or not. This is in fact quite easy, as the clerk employs the construction de + ablative in unambiguously topical senses twice in the immediate preamble to Lord Berkeley's statement, one of which relates specifically to the former King's death:

>Thomas de Berkele Mil' venit coram Dño Rege in pleno Parliamento suo predco, & allocutus de hoc, quod cum Dñus Edwardus nuper Rex Anglie, pater Dñi Regis nunc, in custodia ipsius Thome et cujusdam Johnis Mautravers nuper extitit liberatus ad salvo custodiendum in Castro ipsius Thome apud Berkele in Com' Gloucestrie, et in eodem Castro in custodia ipsorum Thome & Johnis murdratus extitit & interfectus, Qualiter se velit de morte ipsius Regis acquietare?

In translation:

>Thomas de Berkeley, knight, came before the Lord King in his aforesaid full Parliament, and was questioned concerning this: that whereas Sir Edward, late King of England, father of the Lord King now [reigning], was lately delivered into the custody of the said Thomas and of a certain John Maltravers to be safely kept in the castle of the said Thomas at Berkeley in the county of Gloucester, and in the same castle, in the custody of the said Thomas and John, was murdered and slain; how does he wish to acquit himself with respect to the death of the said King?

This is the immediate context for what follows:

>He sayd he was never consenting, aiding or procuring in his death, nor did he ever know de morte sua until the present Parliament.

The first two usages are, as I said, unambiguously topical in sense. Allocutus de hoc introduces the subject matter itself on which he was questioned and then immediately explains what that subject matter was: the fact that the King had died in his custody. De morte ipsius Regis is then asking him how he wishes to acquit himself with respect to this matter. It is in this context that he says he knew nothing de morte sua. I don't know how to make it clearer that this construction is employed here because it is the topic under discussion. Sua as a pronoun is clearly meant to be anaphoric on the previous ipsius Regis, that usage would be technically incorrect in classical Latin, where that usage of sua would imply he wasn't aware of his own death. Given that Lord Berkeley was not a zombie to my knowledge, this is certainly just a case of medieval Latin being looser with its pronouns, which is a known and documented feature of it.

In any case, Lord Berkeley himself clarified in the same document precisely the sense in which he knew nothing de morte sua: he was detained by illness at Bradley at the time the former King was murdered, having charges Maltravers, Gurney and Ockley with custody of the former king and having trusted them implicitly, and so had no knowledge or complicity in what had occured in his absence. Supporters of the supposedly "literal" reading claim that this was Lord Berkeley changing tack after his previous explanation failed to pass muster, but this is not the case here. Lord Berkeley's first statement is not an explanation at all; it is him simply pleading not guilty. His subsequent responses are him explaining why, in fact, he is not guilty. Assuming that his first statement is an independent explanation separate from the later one he gives runs into numerous other absurdities, too. Why on earth would he think that claiming he had only learnt of the former King's death at the 1330 Parliament would fly? Nothing was presented at that Parliament that would constitute new evidence of Edward's death. The relevant actors would have known perfectly well that it was Berkeley who sent the letter announcing Edward II's death after presumably being informed by Ockley and Gurney, who were the men accused of having physically murdered him. Based on the presuppositions the 1330 Parliament was operating on, their testimony that he had died would obviously have been accurate, even if they had deceptively told him he died of natural causes. They were the ones who had killed him! The only thing the 1330 Parliament newly established was that the former King's death was a murder and that Mortimer, Gurney and Ockley were responsible for it. They still accepted, and indeed presupposed, that he had indeed died at Berkeley Castle on September 21st 1327. No new information was provided in 1330 to further substantiate that he had died. So Lord Berkeley claiming he had learnt at that Parliament that the former king had died is simply nonsensical on the face of it. There was nothing he could have learnt that from in 1330. There was nothing about the 1330 Parliament's contentions that would have somehow retroactively invalidated the testimony of the custodians of Berkeley Castle in 1327 that he had died, so Lord Berkeley can't be saying "I was told that he had died then but did not actually know those claims were accurate until 1330."

Thus, the supposed "literal meaning" of Lord Berkeley's statement, aside from not even being the "literal" or most natural meaning of what he said, is completely nonsensical on the face of it regardless. Even if he had wished to make such a nonsensical statement, Professor Haines is correct that the idiomatic way of saying this would have been "nec unquam scivit regem mortuum esse."

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u/AnantaPurima — 2 months ago
▲ 203 r/MedievalHistory+1 crossposts

The Ridiculous Life of Joanna I of Naples

​

Joanna I of Naples' entire life was absolutely insane and it is a travesty it is not better known. Apologies for the long post but the sheer amount of chaos in her life is just breathtaking.

Right off the bat, she comes to the throne with a succession crisis. Basically, her great-grandfather, Charles II of Naples, was married to Maria of Hungary, and after her brother, Ladislaus IV of Hungary, died childless, Maria decided to claim the Hungarian throne for her eldest son Charles Martel, and then, after his death, for his son, their grandson Charles Robert (side note, Charles Robert’s sister was Clementia of Hungary, who was Louis X of France’s replacement wife after the Tour de Nesle affair). Charles Robert successfully pressed his claim and became Charles I of Hungary, but his grandfather Charles II of Naples had decided to pass over him to instead give Naples to his own younger son, Robert, clearly thinking his grandson had enough on his plate with the Hungarian claim. This started a lot of bad blood between the Neapolitan and Hungarian branches of the family, and so Robert, now Robert I of Naples, arranged a marriage between his granddaughter and heiress, Joanna, and Charles I of Hungary’s son, Andrew, to repair relations between the two branches.

This marriage, however, was a shambles. After Robert I died and Joanna succeeded as Queen of Naples in her own right at only 17, Andrew demanded to be made King of Naples by right of his marriage to her, which the late King Robert I had explicitly barred from happening. Andrew and his Hungarian courtiers were widely hated in Naples and seen as churlish and unsophisticated. Joanna herself had little time for him, and later began an affair with her half-cousin, Louis, Prince of Taranto. Eventually, Andrew, aged only seventeen, was strangled to death and flung outside a window. It was widely suspected that Joanna herself had ordered his assasination, and his older brother Louis, now Louis I of Hungary, was livid. He revived his own claim to the throne of Naples and invaded to seek revenge for his brother’s death, forcing Joanna to flee to her lands in Provence, in modern-day France. There, she was forced to sell the city of Avignon to the Pope in order to get him to declare her innocent of her husband’s murder. In the meantime, Louis I of Hungary had been forced to return to Hungary after an outbreak of the Black Death in Naples, allowing her to return.

After Andrew’s death, Joanna had married Louis of Taranto, who acted as her great defender. Eventually, he was declared her co-ruler and crowned King Louis I of Naples by right of his marriage to her. Surely, now, Joanna has the chance to finally begin her reign in earnest, right? LOL Nope. Louis immediately turned on her, stripped her of all her power, purged the Neapolitan court of her allies, and effectively treated her as his prisoner. Meanwhile Louis I of Hungary invaded Naples again, with Louis I of Naples just barely defeating him. As if to add to their troubles, the Pope then excommunicated them for failing to lay the annual tributes they owed (as the Kingdom of Naples was considered a vassal of the Papacy), forcing them to go back to Avignon to resolve the issue. Eventually, Louis I of Naples died, and Joanna, now free, actually was able to start ruling now. And by all accounts, she was actually pretty good at it! And so she ruled her realm, happily and securely, until the end of her days. Oh wait actually no.

All of Joanna’s children from her previous marriages had died young, and so it was determined that she would need to remarry to secure the succession. For this, rather inexplicably, she chose James IV, the titular King of Majorca. I stress that he was the titular King of Majorca, as his father, James III, had been killed in battle and his realm had been annexed by Peter IV of Aragon. James himself had been confined in a small iron cage for over a decade before he had escaped and fled to Naples, and the experience... affected his mental health, to say the least. According to a letter Joanna herself sent to the Pope, James began acting erratically only eight days into the marriage, and demanded a more substantial role in Naples’ governance. Joanna, unsurprisingly given her experiences with her first and second husbands, refused outright, and so a dissatisfied James instead left to attempt to reclaim his kingdom. His attempt was a consummate failure, and he ended up getting captured by Henry II of Castile, with Joanna forced to pay a ransom to free him. He then promptly wandered off again to try to reclaim his lands once more, only to die in the process. Their marriage had been childless. By now, Joanna was in her 40s and there was no longer any realistic chance of her having any more children. She did, however, marry a final time to Otto, the Duke of Brunswick-Lüneburg. He was a middle-aged widower himself, and, at least this time around, Joanna seems to have finally found a man who wasn’t a wrong’un. So, does she finally get to live out her remaining years in peace? The answer, I’m afraid, is an emphatic no.

In 1377, Pope Gregory XI finally returned the papal court to its ancient seat in Rome after 66 years of it being located in Avignon. He died the next year, and the Roman populace, intent on ensuring that the next Pope would remain in Rome, intimidated the College of Cardinals into electing the Archbishop of Bari, Bartolomeo Prignano, as Pope Urban VI. A substantial number of the cardinals, however, felt that the validity of the election had been compromised due to the duress they had been subjected to. A group of these cardinals then elected their own preferred candidate, Robert, Count of Geneva, as Pope Clement VII. (Anti-)Pope Clement VII was forced to flee from his prior base in Anagni and instead went to Naples, where Joanna received him as an honoured guest. He then returned to Avignon under the patronage of Charles V of France and established his own papal court there, marking the beginning of what would be known as the Western Schism, wherein christendom was divided between the adherents of the Roman popes and the Avignon popes. As Joanna had taken Clement VII’s side in the schism, Urban VI responded by excommunicating her (for the second time!), declaring the throne of Naples vacant, and bestowing it upon her second cousin, Charles of Durazzo.

Joanna responded to this by disinheriting Charles and instead adopting as her designated heir Louis, Duke of Anjou, the brother of Charles V of France. Charles of Durazzo then rallied his forces against Joanna, and, with the support of her perennial enemy, Louis I of Hungary, resolved to depose Joanna and seize what he believed to be his rightful crown. Joanna’s husband, Otto of Brunswick, attempted to rally forces against him, but was defeated. Charles eventually conquered Naples and triumphed over Joanna, placing her under house arrest. At this point, Louis of Anjou decided to finally intervene to rescue Joanna, and began organising a relief effort for her. Charles of Durazzo, to preempt this, had Joanna herself smothered to death. She was 56 years old and had been Queen of Naples for 39 years. Charles succeeded her as Charles III of Naples. Louis of Anjou failed to claim Naples off of Charles, but his descendants would continue attempting to prosecute the claim to Naples they inherited from him.

Remember: no matter how bad things might seem in your life, at least you're not Joanna I of Naples.

u/AnantaPurima — 3 months ago

Might be a bid of an odd question but...

Would anyone here be interested in reading and offering commentary on some excerpts from a book I'm writing? It's a novel, intended to be a more serious Hilary Mantel-esque treatment of the 1322-1330 period, with the structure of an Aristotelian Greek tragedy. You don't necessarily need to be an "expert" or avid reader or whatever, just to read a several-page excerpt and say if you enjoyed reading it or found it a slog. I want to offer a more psychologically honest depiction of Edward and Isabella than what they've had the misfortune to receive in popular culture up until now.

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u/AnantaPurima — 3 months ago

Roger Mortimer's modus operandi and the Martin Bashir playbook

At his trial following his downfall in 1330, one of the charges against Roger de Mortimer was itemized as follows:

"Item, the said Roger falsely and maliciously initiated discord between the father of our lord the king and the queen his consort, and he caused her to believe that if she came to him he would have killed her with a knife or murdered her in another manner. Because of which, for that reason, and by his other subtle scheming, he caused the said queen not to come to her said lord."

While there was, of course, a desire to exculpate Isabella as much as possible from the actions of 1326-1330, which naturally gives us pause about how reliable such characterisation of their relationship could be, I still think it merits serious consideration.

We know, for one, that Adam d'Orleton (at least allegedly) preached a sermon in which he claimed Edward II had hidden a knife on his person with which to harm Isabella if she ever approached him, or, faling that, would try to gnash her with his teeth. It was on this basis that the political nation supposedly barred Isabella from visiting or resuming married life with her husband, and this was once again reiterated at the Stamford Council of 1327.

By the 1330s however, when John de Stratford accused d'Orleton of having fabricated this claim, d'Orleton responded by producing a letter written by Isabella in 1326, prior to the invasion, to the then-Archbishop of Canterbury, Walter Reynolds. In it she justifies her failure to return by declaring that she desired nothing more, save the salvation of her soul, than to live and die in her husband's company, but was simply not able to return to her husband due to her mortal terror of Hugh le Despenser. Roy Martin Haines stated that it was unlikely that this letter was spurious, given that many of the key players in the relevant events, not least Isabella herself, were still very much alive and could have refuted the letter if necessary, and I am inclined to agree with him.

Nevertheless, depsite the apparent authenticity of the letter and the claims they make, there is no evidence whatsoever that Edward II himself, or even Hugh le Despenser, ever actually intended Isabella any sort of physical harm in any capacity. Indeed, one source describes Edward himself being astonished at the accusation and denying it entirely. So, where on earth did it come from? The theory that it was primarily a pretext to justify the political necessity of Isabella's separation from Edward after the deposition is partially accurate but does not explain why Isabella was apparently claiming some form of it while still in France. The theory that she was using it then as a pretext specifically to justify her failure to return to England for her own reasons is contradicted by other evidence suggesting she did genuinely believe Hugh had intentionally put her life in danger, such as her blaming him for the debacle at Tynemouth in 1322 and having it inserted in the charges against him four years later.

The most parsimonious reading, on the balance of evidence as I take it, is the one the charge gives us: Isabella's existing grievances, particularly over the trauma at Tynemouth and the subsequent loss of access to her husband, were actively aggravated by Mortimer. If this was Mortimer's modus operandi, how far did he take it? We know the 1326 charges against Hugh le Despenser included multiple almost entirely false charges, including that Hugh le Despenser had paid assassins to dispatch Isabella and her son while they were in France. If we accept Mortimer was already deliberately aggrivating her paranoia about Hugh, which seems to be the case given the above evidence and would demonstrably be in his interests regardless, is it possible he was the one to convince her Hugh had sent agents to eliminate her and her son? What were these unnamed other forms of "subtle scheming" mentioned? While this is of course complete speculation, is there a possibility that he falsified or misrepresented evidence to Isabella in order to convince her of the worst about Hugh and possibly her husband? What do you think?

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u/AnantaPurima — 3 months ago
▲ 18 r/houseofplantagenet+1 crossposts

TFW when your sister is in an incestuous bisexual throuple with her psychopathic husband and your uncle the King, and they imprison you into a nunnery and force you to sign away your inheritance to them after killing your husband who also used to be your uncle's lover until they fell out

But it's ok cause you got to found a college at Cambridge! Also you're indirectly the source of the name Clarence. Hooray for legacy!

u/AnantaPurima — 3 months ago

Has anyone here read or acquired access to Doherty's doctoral thesis on Isabella of France?

Pretty much as the title says. It seems to be accessible at the Bodleian Library but... that's rather a trek for me. I know Alison Weir stated that Doherty sent her a copy (make of that what you will) but has anyone else done this? It seems so bizarre that such a highly regarded secondary source for this period is so difficult to access. I did loan Isabella and the Strange Death of Edward II but I thought it was abysmal. I didn't even bother.

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u/AnantaPurima — 3 months ago
▲ 334 r/Tudorhistory+1 crossposts

The annulment of Henry VIII's marriage to Catherine of Aragon was a structural inevitablity

​

Henry VIII faces this situation by the mid-1520s:

Princess Mary is his only surviving legitimate child and his heiress presumptive. Her marriage will inevitably determine England’s geopolitical alignment. She cannot marry into the Houses of Valois or Habsburg without risking England becoming permanently subordinated to either France or the Empire, which is particularly humiliating in the case of the Valois, who have illegitimately usurped the French throne according to England; the Portuguese House of Aviz are themselves bound to the Habsburgs via their own marital alliances; minor German and Italian potentates offer minimal benefits and are embroiled in the Franco-Imperial rivalry regardless. The princes of the Schmalkaldic League, as well as Denmark and Sweden, are obviously unacceptable for doctrinal reasons to Henry at this point in time, and would in any case constrain Henry into an aggressive posture against Charles V, preventing the diplomatic flexibility key to England's survival in this period. Mary marrying a German prince more generally would in any circumstance risk a repeat of the Aquitaine situation with France but for the German state in question with Charles V as suzerain of the Empire. He would demand homage and threaten confiscation accordingly. The only truly ideal prospective husband is his nephew, James V of Scotland, which would be appropriate to her rank and wouldn't risk foreign domination due to Scotland’s relative weakness. This, however, is foreclosed by the Treaty of Rouen, which Scotland signed with France in 1517 to maintain the Auld Alliance, stipulating that James V is to marry an unspecified daughter of François I (he later marries Madeleine of Valois in 1537). After the humiliation of the Battle of Flodden in 1513, Scotland had no appetite whatsoever to be subordinated to England, its traditional enemy.

Aside from foreign candidates, she cannot marry a domestic candidate without provoking chaos by elevating a specific noble family to quasi-royal status, which would provoke factional resentment even more acutely than the rise of the Woodville family in the 15th century did. A fortiori, civil war would have ensues. She cannot marry her illegitimate half-brother Henry FitzRoy. That would be incest. Nor can she marry her cousin Reginald Pole, as his royal blood comes from his descent from George, Duke of Clarence, who was attainted and executed in 1478. That attainder was precisely the legal ground on which Edward, Earl of Warwick was passed over for both Richard III and Henry VII. Repealing that attainder would also have reopened the very sensitive issue of Warwick's execution by Henry VII. Other than Reginald, the other sons of the Countess of Salisbury are already married. The only other male of collateral descent from the royal line is Edward Courteney, who was only born in circa 1327 and would have had no guarantee of reaching adulthood. Henry cannot simply just designate Henry FitzRoy or any other bastard he might have his heir by fiat, since the factor of illegitimacy will inevitably result in people championing Mary's claim and having a canonically unimpeachable reason to do so, especially with the international support her claim would receive as opposed to FitzRoy.

Therefore, Mary will inevitably succeed Henry VIII as Queen Regnant unless displaced by a male heir. Ctherine cannot provide that male heir, as her last recorded pregnancy, resulting in a stilborn girl, was in 1518, and by the early 1520s they had ceased regular marital relations. Nevertheless, Catherine is alive and physically healthy, she could easily live for years or decades, rendering the crisis more acute as Mary begins to enter marriageable age. Henry cannot guarantee that he will be able to keep her unmarried indefinitely, as, if England suffers military reverses, a victorious power could obligate him to offer her via treaty terms.

Credit where credit's due, Henry knows all of this. He says as much in the introduction to the 1532 pamphlet A Glasse of the Truth:

"For tho we haue a female heyre, whiche is bothe indued with moche ver­tue & grace in many dootes and gyftes, yet if a male might be atteyned it ware moch more sure, if we well perpende and pondre many vrgent & wayghtie causes. Amongest whiche this one, is depely to be forsene, that if the female heyre, shall, chaunce to rule, she can nat cotinue longe without an husbande. whiche by goddes lawe, muste than be her gouernour and heed, and so finally shall directe this re­alme. But who that shulde be,with the contentement of the subiectes, me thin­keth, it were harde to excogitate. For proximitie of blode, is to great a lette to some, otherwise mete for that purpose, except we wolde be so beestly to put our necke eftsones in the snare of this erro­nious prohibited errour, whiche is, and hathe ben alwayes detested by the moste parte of all the famous clerkes of christendome. The punisshement whereof, were to terrible to be suffered, and also to ab­hominable to be harde of, emonges chri­sten folke. On thother side, to other some, it were daungerous, leste we shulde make the superiours to vs, ouer whome, we clayme superioritie, seynge the manne must rule the woman. Others outwarde mete personages our sklender wittes can nat comprehende. And as touchinge any mariage within this realme, we thinke, it were harde to deuise any condigne and able person, for so highe an enterprise, moche harder, to finde one, with whome the holle realme wolde & coulde be con­tented to haue him ruler and gouernour. Wherfore we thinke the establysshement of titles is nat so surely rooted nor yet so entierlye mainteyned by the female as by male. Whiche well consydered syns the vnion of all titles do remayne and be collocate in him onely, we oughte of duetie if oure wittes may thereto ex­tende) to excogitate all wayes to vs pos­sible, howe we might atteyne the succes­sion of heyres male."

He is, here, quite explicitly referencing the impossibilty of marrying Mary to Henry FitzRoy (the "erroneous prohibited error" being incest), as well as the untenability of her prior betrothal to Henri, Duke of Orléans (the future Henri II) as a permanent solution ("lest we should make the superiors to us [those] over whom we claim superiority" means risking Henri becoming King of England jure uxoris, a humiliating inversion of the old Plantagenet claim to the French throne through Isabella of France).

Indeed, exactly this sort of scenario almost came true with Mary and Philip's marriage; however, that marriage was only ever accepted because there wasn't a direct risk of personal union so long as Don Carlos was alive as the heir apparent to Spain. Given that Don Carlos ended up dying childless, it was only the biological accident of Mary's sterility that prevented a personal union that would have turned England into a permanent Spanish client. Had they had children, they would have inherited England and the Spanish Empire in personal union. The terms of Mary and Philip's marital treaty did nothing to solve or ameliorate the issue of a personal union vested in a single individual beyond a vague request that they respect the customs and privileges of each of their individual realms. That would have meant next to nothing in actual fact, just as the privilages of the Seventeen Provinces meant nothing to Philip when they proved inconvenient.

Based on all of this, I simply do not think Henry can be faulted for initiating annulment proceedings. It was, by any reasonable measure, a geopolitical necessity. The papacy had granted transparently politically motivated annullments before. Pope Alexander VI annulled the married of Louis XII of France and Joan of Valois to allow him to marry Anne of Brittany and thereby maintain control over the Duchy of Brittany for France. The pretexts in that case were even more transparently flimsy than in Henry's case. Say what you will about his subsequent actions, and there is indeed a lot you can say about him, I don't think Henry really had much choice in the matter concerning the annulment. Given how overdetermined the annulment was, I doubt that his passion for Anne Boleyn was the primary motivation of what occured. His fondness of Anne was certainly what made her his desired replacement in his mind, but the annulment would have occured regardless of whether Henry had become infatuated with her. I think her structural importance to the Great Matter is somewhat exaggerated.

u/AnantaPurima — 3 months ago

Do you think Isabella of France's burial arrangements were her own idea?

Or do you think Edward III essentially foisted them on her as part of some sort of penitential image-rehabilitation scheme? Neither the mantle nor the heart were standard gestures of marital fidelity in traditional 14th centuries, so it wasn't really fitting any established social script. Marguerite of France had been buried in the same church (the Franciscan House in London) in a simple Poor Clares' Habit. That would have been the conventional choice for Isabella. Did she, or Edward III, drive these decisions however? I'm interested in what people think.

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u/AnantaPurima — 3 months ago

If so, do you use the likenesses of other, more visually well-represented individuals to imagine what they'd look like? I'm not necessarily asking who you would cast as either Edward or Isabella per se, as obviously there are a lot of other considerations relevant there.

For example: I have a very particular mental image of Edward of Carnarvon, but it doesn't really correspond to anyone else directly. On the other hand, my internal model of Isabella corresponds exactly to the famed French actress Isabelle Adjani, particularly in her portrayal of Marguerite de Valois in La Reine Margot, albeit with her wearing the fashions of the 14th century. I'd be very interested to see how others imagine these figures when discussing them, if only to see how likely different our mental images of them are!

Also, apologies if you've already seen this post, I have tried to post this before only for it to be swallwed by Reddit for some reason lol

u/AnantaPurima — 4 months ago
▲ 24 r/EdwardII+1 crossposts

A stained glass image of Hugh le Despenser the Younger at Tewkesbury Abbey, likely commissioned by his widow, Eleonor de Clare.

From their marriage in 1302 until sometime in late 1322, Isabella of France seems to have been a consummate political partner to her husband. She remained unswervingly loyal to him during his conflicts with the Lords Ordainers in the early 1310s and with the Contrariants throughout the Despenser War. We see this no more acutely than in her (quite ballsy) decision to use herself, in 1321, as bait against Bartholomew de Badlesmere's wife Margaret de Clare, engineering the confrontation that occurred between them at Leeds Castle in order to draw out the King's baronial enemies. However, by December 1322, something had clearly gone wrong. Sometime that month, Isabella absented herself from court, and on the 23rd Edward II announced that Isabella was undertaking a pilgrimage to various sites across the country; something, as Kathryn Warner notes, she appears not to have actually done.

By 1323, they seem, at least superficially, to have reconciled with one another; however, as later events would show, Isabella was still clearly very unhappy with the situation, even if she had taken to dissembling her true feelings. Neither of them conceived a child in the roughly four years since Joan of the Tower's birth in 1321, and, of course, the King apparently lashed out at his wife due to the outbreak of the War of St Sardos, confiscating her lands and instead compensating her with an annual income from the Exchequer of approximately £2,613. The main negative outcome of this was almost certainly not financial, but political. It prevented her from strengthening her broader affinity and patronage networks through rewarding her supporters with appointments on her lands. In the meanwhile, Hugh le Despenser, Edward II's current favourite, consolidated his authority through monopolising access to the King through his position as Chamberlain, even to the point of restricting Isabella's access to her husband. Of course, Isabella was later sent to broker a peace with her brother and the rest, as they say, was history.

But what actually changed in 1322? Why is it that Isabella found herself unable to establish a working relationship with him the way she was with her husband's previous favourites? There are multiple theories we can explore. One might say that it was inevitable: Hugh was simply so incorrigibly rapacious that his and Isabella's interests were always going to be on a headlong collision course with one another. This, however, simply does not persuade me. Whatever you want to say about Hugh, the man could work with people when it suited his interests to do so. He worked with the likes of Edmund FitzAlan, Robert de Baldock and Walter de Stapleton. He obviously worked well with his father, and worked very well indeed with Edward II. Though, through what means, we can only speculate 😉. Regardless, the point is, I think Hugh would have seen he had good reasons from the outset to want to cultivate Isabella. There was no a priori reason why she couldn't have benefited from his rapacity or why he couldn't have shared some of his spoils with her to win her over. But if that's the case, then, presumably something must have happened to pit the two against each other. But what, though, precisely?

We know that some early tensions may have existed between Hugh le Despenser and the Queen. Sometime in the early 1320s, Edward II transferred Wallingford Castle, which had previously been assigned to the Queen for life, to Hugh. It might be notable that Wallingford Castle was where Isabella and her adherents spent the festive season in 1326 after their successful coup against the Despenser regime. Nevertheless, however irksome this may have been for Isabella, I am inclined to doubt that this would have been sufficient to ignite the subsequent feud that ensued between them, given how deeply felt it clearly was.

The Annales Paulini, however, records a more consequential incident. According to it, sometime in August 1321, Isabella, alongside the Earls of Pembroke and Richmond, begged on her knees for Edward to exile the Despensers. Did Hugh the Younger perhaps remember this as a slight against him and take revenge against Isabella after Edward was able to recall him and reinstate his position? Possibly; but there is no actual evidence for this, as far as I am aware of. Regardless, Isabella's intercession here almost certainly wasn't an expression of any personal hostility to Hugh at this stage, and more so a case of political theatre to allow  Edward to capitulate to the demands of the Marcher lords while saving face. They had been enraged after the lordship of Gower had been arrogated by Edward, presumably to grant to Hugh, in defiance of Marcher privileges, resulting in them ransacking and occupying the Despensers' lands in the March and demanding their exile. By August, Edward was under immense pressure, and Hugh himself seems to have understood this; it's not like there's any evidence he held a grudge against Edward for what happened, and the same logic would have applied to Isabella.

There is, however, another famous incident, and one, I believe, that does the explanatory work we need. In September 1322, following the crushing defeat of Edward II's Contrariant foes at the Battle of Boroughbridge, the King decided to capitalise on his newfound political strength and organise a new Scottish campaign. Unfortunately, if predictably, the 1322 campaign was another complete disaster, and soon enough a Scottish counter-invasion had been launched into the north of England. Isabella of France, who had somewhat inexplicably been staying at the coastal Tynemouth Priory at the time, was cut off from the English forces by the Scottish invasion, and was eventually forced to flee on a commandeered vessel by sea. According to one of the few sources that mentioned this incident, one of her ladies in waiting died (possibly of injury) during the voyage and another went into premature labour and died after they disembarked at Scarborough.

We next hear of this incident in 1326, when Hugh was accused in his trial of having "falsely and treacherously counselled our lord the king to leave my lady the queen in peril of her person in the priory of Tynemouth in Northumberland... and in such great misfortune and peril of her person, my lady who was your liege lady, by your treacherous deed might have been lost, to the perpetual dishonour and damage of the king and his realm, if God had not sent her deliverance by sea, thereby rescuing her from danger to her life and saving her honour, in such great grief of heart and body that no good lady of her estate and nobility should have at any time."

Was this true, however? Almost certainly not. Again, as Kathryn Warner points out, had Isabella been captured, the Scots would have demanded a truly ruinous sum for her to be ransomed from them, which was directly antithetical to Hugh's primary ambition in life; the acquisition of ever more financial resources. Indeed, we know that Isabella had not been abandoned by Edward or Hugh at all. The initial plan had been for the Earls of Richmond and Atholl to go and take Hugh's retainers to Tynemouth to defend her, only for Edward to later instead charge the visiting Henri de Sully, Grand Butler of France, with her rescue, as he would be ‘more agreeable than others' to Isabella. De Sully, however, like the Earl of Richmond, was captured by the Scots at Old Byland and never reached Isabella, thus necessitating her escape by sea. The two were, however, ransomed back. Edward's change of plan may have simply been because, as a Frenchman with news from her natal family on the continent, he might have thought Isabella would simply like his company more. Nevertheless, it seems plausible to me that she may have felt the inevitable delay this change caused was what had brought her life into danger. Given that Hugh's retainers were ultimately under his command, she may have indeed held him responsible for the change in plan. Nevertheless, this is all speculation, as none of the surviving sources give us any direct insight into what Isabella specifically believed, or what she had even heard, about what had gone wrong at Tynemouth.

Regardless, whatever had actually happened, Isabella seems to have returned from Tynemouth implacably convinced that Hugh had intentionally jeopardised her life. When we appreciate this, I think the nature of Isabella's progressive marginalisation by Hugh, and her increasing drift from Edward, starts to become far more intelligible. Imagine yourself in Hugh's position in 1322. How would allowing Isabella, believing what she does about you, access to the King be in your interests? It isn't, not remotely. This brings me to my core conceit here. I think Hugh le Despenser's marginalisation of Isabella began not as an aggressive measure, but as a defensive one. A response, essentially, to the beliefs she had somehow acquired about him, and the risk they posed that she would attempt to turn Edward against him when given the chance. From here, I think it is quite clear a vicious cycle was born. Hugh's defensive actions taken against Isabella are interpreted by her as confirming her suspicions about him and his intentions, which further reinforced her conclusions about him, which, in turn, prompted him to become more diligent and intent on marginalising her to protect his status. 

To be clear, I'm not arguing that Hugh was some misunderstood angel. Far from it. Hugh was, undoubtedly, a deeply morally compromised and unscrupulous individual. I'm merely arguing that the degeneration of Isabella and Hugh's relationship may perhaps have been more complex than Nasty Meanie Favourite Makes Poor Queen's Life Hell For No Reason. What do you think?

u/AnantaPurima — 4 months ago

Isabella takes custody of Edward II.

(Apologies for how long this ended up being, lol)

Ok. Imagine for a moment that you are in Isabella of France's position in 1325. Your husband is effectively in thrall to an individual whom you believe, rightly or wrongly, to have endangered your life by convincing your husband to abandon you at Tynemouth Priory three years ago. This person has subsequently systematically curtailed your access to your husband, preventing you from exercising the intercessory role that forms the backbone of your influence as queen. He has convinced your husband that you are now a political liability, given the onset of the War of St Sardos, which had nothing to do with you and which you could not have prevented. Your husband has subsequently slashed your annual income and confiscated your lands, thereby further vitiating your position as queen by preventing you from dispensing patronage through appointments on those lands. Having been sent to France to negotiate a peace settlement, you are now finally free of the presence of this individual and have a chance to once again exert political agency. However, you face a dilemma: how do you make the most of this period of respite from a truly intolerable situation? Is it not worth exploiting it for leverage?

You table the question for now. Your husband will inevitably have to come to France to perform homage to your brother as his feudal suzerain for his lands in Gascony and Ponthieu. He Who Must Not Be Named will almost certainly not risk coming alongside him, not with Contrariant exiles still lurking on the continent, ready to pounce at any chance for revenge. Hopefully, then, you will have the chance to talk to your husband without that man interposing himself between you two, and you will be able to get through to him. Then you receive the news. Your husband, clearly having been prevailed upon at the last minute, has cancelled. He has instead decided to enfeoff your eldest son as Duke of Aquitaine and Count of Ponthieu and Montreuil, and to have him perform homage in his stead. Any chance of catching him without That Man is now scuppered.

This is now the situation you face. Let's assume you are an intelligent and historically literate political operator. From your perspective, as Isabella, does amassing a mercenary force for the express purpose of invading your adopted homeland, forcing your husband to abdicate and enthroning your eldest son, with you presiding as Queen Mother, look like a viable or appealing avenue to regaining political influence?

Reader, no. That is, to put it charitably, completely batshit insane. And the fact that it is completely batshit insane is blindingly obvious to you, assuming you are not completely historically illiterate. Which, as a highly educated fille de France, I would certainly hope you were not.

For the time being, let's put aside the entire can of worms that is attempting to depose a King of England, something that has never been successfully done before by your time. What I want to focus on is something far, far more elementary. That something is this:

BECOMING A QUEEN MOTHER IN PLANTAGENET ENGLAND WAS NOT A REALISTIC OR VIABLE WAY OF REGAINING POLITICAL INFLUENCE.

"B-but what about Blanche of Castile? Eleonor of Aquitaine?" I hear you cry. Right. Yes. I'm getting to that. Let's start with Blanche, because she was a genuinely impressive figure who exercised extraordinary power as regent for her son, Louis IX, and remained a trusted and influential advisor even after he attained his majority. Blanche was Isabella's great-great-grandmother, so she was certainly aware of her and her achievements. The spanner in the wrench is that... well, Blanche of Castile was Queen Regent of France, and, despite many subsequent efforts to the contrary in the 14th and 15th centuries, France and England were two different countries with very different political cultures. The position of regency, as a distinct vocation for Capetian queens-consort, simply did not exist in England. Blanche's regency had been institutionally legitimised through her late husband Louis VIII's will. The most recent precedent for an English monarch acceding to the throne before their majority was Henry III in 1216, and then, the political nation had chosen William Marshal, the Earl of Pembroke, as regent, pointedly excluding his mother, Isabella of Angoulême. For Isabella to have imagined a quasi-Capetian role of queen-regency for herself, she would have needed to believe she could successfully import an entirely foreign political culture to England, push through the constitutional innovations necessary to make such a position even intelligible, and to think that the baronage would, I dunno, accept this flagrant violation of established precedent. I, at least, do not see how Isabella could have thought this was any sort of winning strategy.

Ok, what about Eleonor of Aquitaine? Well, Eleonor's position was qualitatively different from Isabella's, or any other Plantagenet queen consort, really, being the Duchess of Aquitaine in her own right and thus being, individually, an indispensable lynchpin of the whole Angevin edifice. Eleonor's political prominence after Henry II's death did not come from her being a queen mother; it came from her status as a ruler in her own right, with her own independent political base, and from the fact that her son, Richard I, was physically absent from his realms on crusade for substantial portions of his reign, which required her, as a said lynchpin of their empire, to actively maintain and defend it when it was vulnerable. None of this applied to Isabella, and so Eleonor's example hardly provided a viable blueprint for her to follow.

Given that we have dispensed with these two points, let us look at what the remaining field looks like for queen dowagers/mothers in post-conquest England. How did their political prospects fare as a result of their transition into the role? Let's take a look. Apart from Eleonor, we have five cases relevant for our purposes here:

  1. Adeliza of Louvain. Had no children by Henry I, subsequently remarried to an English nobleman and lived an entirely conventional life as a noblewoman from that point onwards. Politically irrelevant.

  2. Berengaria of Navarre. Had no children by Richard I. Spent years litigating over her dower. Eventually became a patroness of sorts. Politically irrelevant.

  3. Isabella of Angoulême. Had five surviving children by John, including his successor, Henry III, who was a minor at the time of his accession. Had her own political base as the Countess of Angoulême in her own right. Was shut out of the regency, remarried to the son of her prior betrothed, the Lord of Lusignan, tried to regain political relevance in arranging a rebellion against the French Crown, failed, and died in what was essentially disgrace. Politically disastrous.

  4. Eleonor of Provence. Had four surviving children by Henry III, including his successor, Edward I. Was respected by her son and lived an entirely conventional life as a queen mother, gracefully stepping aside for her daughter-in-law, Eleonor of Castile, and eventually becoming a nun at Amesbury Priory. Honoured and respected, but still functionally politically irrelevant.

  5. Marguerite of France. Had two surviving children by Edward I. Isabella's own aunt. Retreated from court after Edward II's accession and lived an entirely conventional life as a queen dowager. Politically irrelevant.

When we think about what the prospect of queen-motherhood would have looked like to Isabella in a specifically English context, it is necessary to keep these precedents in mind, because this is what it would have looked like. Isabella had seen her aunt Marguerite's trajectory up close. The ceiling for what she could have hoped for from queen motherhood was what Eleonor of Provence received, which was essentially analogous to what Isabella herself received after 1330. Being a queen mother in England was not being a key stateswoman or an essential element of government. It was mulling about on your estate, looking for ways to pass the time.

So, reader, once again, I ask you. Put yourself in Isabella's shoes in 1325. After the political marginalisation you have experienced over the previous few years, does this seriously look, to you, like something to aspire to to regain your influence? No. It doesn't. But do you know what does look like a viable, if desperate, route to regaining influence, however? Adopting an aggressive posture as a pressure tactic to force your husband to temporarily exile his hated favourite, as he has done previously under baronial pressure in 1321, and exploiting his absence to repair your working political partnership enough to permanently freeze out the individual separating you two, and then ensuring he is dealt with. This was almost certainly Isabella's original plan.

What changed things was the fact that Edward's support base simply evaporated with astonishing rapidity, and soon, within months, both Edward II and Hugh le Despenser were in the custody of Isabella and her supporters. It is here that I think opportunistic vindictiveness prevailed over prudence, and Hugh le Despenser was subject to his grotesque execution. Let me be clear, though, I definitely think Isabella and Mortimer wanted Despenser dead from the start, but I think their original plan almost certainly would have been for Isabella to rebuild a working political partnership and make Edward understand her perspective before formally proceeding against him in Parliament. I think Hereford was a reaction to him more or less unexpectedly falling in their hands and them being unable to restrain themselves in the moment. For Roger de Mortimer of Wigmore, in particular, the strategic calculus would have immediately shifted. He had been loyal to Edward for years before the Despenser War in Glamorgan, and I believe Isabella's original plan served his interests too. His primary goal was institutional rehabilitation, and this would not necessarily have been impossible under Edward II, particularly without the Despensers in his ear. This, of course, completely changed with Hereford. He had just presided over a second Blacklow Hill; in fact, something markedly worse than Blacklow Hill, and he would have known that, had Edward II been restored to any semblance of power, a fate like Thomas of Lancaster's, or indeed, one far worse, would be inevitable for him. He simply could not tolerate Edward remaining in any position of power. Regardless of whatever the original plan was, it was inevitable that Roger would now be pushing for deposition. This was likely the discussion occurring over the holidays amongst Isabella and Roger's camp at Wallingford Castle.

This, I think, is borne out by Isabella's subsequent conduct. She was not constructing some grand Blanche of Castile-style regency for herself. Her actions are exactly what we would expect from a queen consort who had been shut out of exerting political influence through the channels of patronage and intercession, who took desperate measures to remove the individual undermining her position, only to be forced to improvise a position for herself after the internal momentum of events made her original goal impossible.

Mark Omrod, in his magisterial biography of Edward III, rather notably describes 1326-1330 as Isabella's "artificially extended period as consort," which I think is right on the money. It's notable that she allocated to herself, on the very day of her son's coronation, an absurdly large dower of £13,000, a sum that put her in possession of most of the revenues from the royal demesne and thus, inevitably, at the centre of patronage networks a queen mother would have ordinarily had little part in. She also repeatedly prevaricated in assigning Philippa of Hainault her dower lands and delayed her coronation for two years straight. These are not the actions of someone owning queen-motherhood. These are the actions of someone whose sense of identity was deeply bound up in her political function as a queen consort, and who was deeply psychologically unprepared to surrender this role after the circumstances she had engineered to reclaim that role spiralled out of control and made it impossible for her.

I don't see how, or why, Isabella could have wanted Edward II deposed in 1325. I don't see how her reaction to his actual deposition could have been anything more than a reluctant acknowledgement of its necessity to preserve the principals of her faction after what had happened at Hereford. I feel it does a disservice to her to say otherwise.

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u/AnantaPurima — 4 months ago