Repost (being filled with the Spirit)
Being filled with the Spirit
I have a question.
I was asked what being filled with the spirit means since every believer is sealed with the Holy Spirit and some people were confused about what Paul was saying in Ephesians 5 and Colossians two. As we were going through it, we rightly understood that being filled with the spirit is Paul’s admonition towards believers that we ought to be under the dominating power and control of the Holy Spirit continuously in our lives and that that is not a command to be sealed with the Holy Spirit because the Holy Spirit is given to those who believe in the Lord Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of their sins.
As we were going through that somebody had a different understanding of being filled with the spirit according to ask chapter 2, chapter 8, chapter 10, and chapter 19. As I was reading them, I noticed something that others might’ve noticed and that’s that the book of acts doesn’t read like Romans or Ephesians or any of the pistols of Paul James, or the other apostles and it reads more like a historical narrative. Then when I go reading about how there was a delay when the Holy Spirit would fall on them and I began to wonder why is it that Paul even in acts and in the rest of his pistols claims that once you believe in the Holy Spirit that you were sealed with the Holy Spirit immediately upon belief in the Lord Jesus Christ, but in acts, there’s a delay for some reason.
I’m looking to see if anybody else picked this up but from what I’m understanding, the book of act is not to be read as a systematic theology like we see in Romans or in Ephesians or in Galatians, for example but it’s to be red as a historical narrative, where in the church, the apostles and God working through, both are legitimized before the Jews, in the instances where the Holy Spirit is delayed in being given to those who are baptized in the name of Jesus or being given to those who believe in him for the remission of sins. For example in chapter 8 of acts that pertain to the inclusion of the Samaritans those of which were enemies to the Jews, and in chapter 10 the same thing occurred before the presence of the Jews with the Gentiles, which would confirm that they two also share in the promises of God and the legitimacy of their conversion and finally, and chapter 19 with the apostles of John the Baptist, who were also filled with the Holy Spirit before the Jews again proving all three times to the Jews that God is now working through the church and that the apostles are legitimized before them. Pentecostal will use the extraordinary and very different ways.
The church first started to say that all who believe in Jesus must speak in tongues and if they do not, they are not true converts. But I think that they only believe in that error because they’re reading the book of acts like a systematic theology and not like a historical narrative, legitimizing the church and legitimizing the apostles. Then I went down a rabbit hole in Deuteronomy chapter 28 verse 49 and the reason why the Jews would believe that this church was legitimate through the speaking in tongues, either intelligible language or glossolia, was because in Deuteronomy chapter 28 verse 49 God is speaking of a time that will come when the Assyrians would enslave the Jews and they would not understand their language and so any Jew worth their salt at the time when the book of acts was being done before the people, they would hear those tongues and be reminded of what it says in Deuteronomy chapter 28 verse 49 essentially affirming the church before their eyes, and for telling upcoming judgment that would fall upon the nation of Israel, so that they would repent and believe in the Lord Jesus Christ.
What is your take on this matter because I don’t know if that’s accurate?