From a secular historical perspective, did Muhammad’s claim to prophethood reflect a desire to place Arabs within the Abrahamic legacy through their own revelation, rather than through Judaism or Christianity?
Given the historical context of Muhammad, he lived during a time in which the various pagan tribes, Jews, Christians, and Sabians (Potentially, Mandeans). Judaism and Christianity already possessed older scriptural traditions, prophetic lineages, legal frameworks, and transregional religious authority.
From a secular historical perspective, I am wondering whether Muhammad’s prophetic claim can be understood partly as an attempt to place Arabs directly within the Abrahamic legacy, not by converting them to Judaism or Christianity, but by presenting them as heirs to Abraham through Ishmael, the Kaaba, and an Arabic revelation. Muhammad, within the context of his relationship with the Jews, seemed to be displeased with the notion that Jews rejected his prophetic career; this rejection was not just a theological disagreement, but also a challenge to the legitimacy of his movement, since Jewish communities already possessed an older scriptural tradition, a developed ethnoreligious legal culture, and a long prophetic lineage.
It seems like the Quran has taken many elements from Jewish and Christian scriptures, such as its focus on making the religious movement not tied to one’s ethnicity, somewhat like Christianity and unlike Judaism, while still retaining a strong Abrahamic genealogy through Ishmael. Given that, it seems like Islam attempts to universalize access to God while also giving Arabs a central role within the Abrahamic tradition.
As a result, I am wondering if early Islam should be understood as both a universalist monotheistic movement and an Arab-centered Abrahamic restoration movement. On one hand, the Quran rejects the idea that salvation or righteousness depends purely on lineage, tribe, or inherited communal identity. On the other hand, it also places major importance on the Arab revelation, Muhammad as an Arab prophet, and the Kaaba as an Abrahamic sanctuary associated with Ishmael.
Would it be fair to say that Islam did not simply imitate Judaism or Christianity, but reworked elements from both traditions into a new religious framework? Christianity had already universalized the Abrahamic God beyond the Jewish ethnoreligious/ethno-tribal context, but it did so through Jesus, the Church, and often Greek, Syriac, Latin, or imperial Christian institutions. Islam, by contrast, seems to universalize Abrahamic monotheism through an Arab revelation and an Arab prophet, while rejecting both rabbinic Jewish law as binding on Arabs and Christian doctrines such as the Trinity and incarnation.
So I guess my broader question is whether Muhammad’s movement can be seen as a response to the religious world he was living in. Jews and Christians already had ancient scriptures, prophets, legal traditions, and broader religious prestige, while Arabian polytheists did not really have that same kind of recognized scriptural authority.
I know that Islam is a proselytizing religion not tied to any specific ethnicity or race, as many of my peers and people in my life are Muslim; however, I am asking more about its original historical formation. Even if Islam eventually became a universal religion, did it initially emerge in a way that gave Arabs a direct scriptural and Abrahamic identity of their own?