88 years, height: ~5’1”, weight unknown but “obese” category maybe ~160lbs, non smoker,
medications include: blood thinner (not sure which one) for recent leg thrombosis , PPI inhibitor (chronically taking for years for possible stomach ulcer, but recent endoscopy showed no stomach ulcers), rituximab injections every 2 months (uncertain of dose)
Previous medications: Myelostat 500mg
Hi All-
I am writing as a man extremely concerned granddaughter. She lives in Mexico and refuses care here and I am dying to know what different would be done here in USA and want to know the differences in standard of care for her condition.
For years my grandma has had issues with iron deficiency/ anemia/ low hemoglobin. She lives in a high altitude city and it doesn’t help her either that she lives a very sedentary life. She only gets up to go to the bathroom or kitchen which is very close to her bedroom. Other than that, she sits in her recliner all day.
Previously, years ago she had her hemoglobin levels down to 4.9 g/dL that required a blood transfusion. Fast forward to end of the year last year and she has had ongoing issues of low hemoglobin and other changes in blood ( see comparison chart of changes, submitted through AI to translate). They had prescribed her myelostat at that time and then followed up with rituximab that she’s been on since January. She had also developed a leg blood clot since and the prescribed the blood thinners and luckily a decrease of 50% was observed. She had come to the US to visit and get more help to exercise in between rituximab injections for 2 months but at the 1 month mark was complaining of extreme fatigue and wanted to go back home without seeing a doctor here in the US. She arrived back home in Mexico and has the most recent blood test shows a hemoglobin levels down to 5.1g/dL again.
Her doctor (hematologist)in Mexico’s course of action is now to give her Aranesp 500mg plus IV iron infusion and once stabilized will order a colonoscopy to see if there is any blood loss. I am concerned that I’ve read about this new medication taking a while to work and the increase in blood clots again, I don’t understand why not use something that is more instantaneous to stabilize her? (I am attaching her AI translated new blood test for reference in an additional post because I can’t attach anymore pics on here)
I guess I am just wondering if what this doctor is suggesting is enough? Is it correct? What would you do in her situation if she was your patient? We also have never been given a formal diagnosis of anything- which leads me to believe he doesn’t know what he’s doing or what is wrong? I have a feeling there’s something missing. Please let me know what you guys think in terms of diagnosis and medications she should be on. I feel so lost and it doesn’t help I’m out of the loop, her care is managed by my aunts/uncles and I feel a lot is lost in translation plus hearing it passed down from multiple people.