Root Word Question - Inept
Just gonna start by saying I'm definitely not an expert so sorry if the answer is decidedly uncontested:
If the English Inept is directly derived from Latin Ineptus, but ineptus itself is derived from aptus, is Inept's Latin rootword ineptus or aptus?
I totally get that if A -> B, and B -> C, then A -> C. It sounds kind of stupid to think otherwise, but I can't help but think that because both ineptus and aptus are Latin in root, Ineptus would be considered the rootword.
Please tell me if this is an incorrect way of thinking about this! I studied Latin in school, but mainly only because it would make studying medicine easier (which I wholeheartedly agree that it did). I'm still fascinated nonetheless by language evolution. Love you big time : )