Moses was called a magician after performing miracles..since Muhammad was also called a magician, could the Quran be implying that he performed miracles too?
Some people argue that when Muhammad was called a “magician/سَـٰحِرٌۭ" (Q38:4) it only referred to his speech... meaning that his opponents thought he was using persuasive words, poetry or rhetoric to mislead people.
I find this explanation incomplete when compared with the story of Moses in the Quran. Moses was also called a "magician/سَـٰحِرٌۭ" (Q7:109) but in his case, he performed visible signs and miracles that people witnessed directly. His opponents saw something extraordinary yet they still rejected him and described him as practicing magic.
This makes me wonder whether the same possibility exists in Muhammad’s case. For example, regarding the splitting of the moon (or whatever event is being referred to in that passage) did Muhammad’s opponents believe that he had caused that event or performed some kind of miracle? In other words, when they accused him of being a magician, could it have been because they thought he was doing extraordinary acts — similar to Moses rather than only because of his speech?