r/AcademicBiblical

I have come across the name Satanael once or twice and I imagine it's a form of proto-Satan / Devil the same way Shamiaza and Azazel are in First Enoch with Azazel sometimes being the snake that tempted humanity, or Samael that was either the dark angel or the accuser in service of God

But whenever I search for Satanael I only find pages about games and other media where the figure is, stating that in judaico-christian mythology he was the leader of the watchers according to Second Enoch, but I never find any actual source, not even a wikipedia page. He is just a footnote on the Satan wikipedia page

Can someone tell me a little bit about him?

I was just considering Luke 4:22 and was wondering if when the people of Nazareth ask "Isn't this Joseph's son" if there could possibly be a hint at the scandal surrounding Jesus's conception. This would be a pretty old scandal by today's standards but I don't know the cultural context of his day.

I saw someone on a vegan forum claim that some scholars believed Jesus feeding people fish is a mistranslation for him actually feeding people fishweed. How much evidence is there for this claim?

regarding biblical archaeology how can we be sure the exodus couldn't have happened at least in a smaller form? is it possible to consider we are missing evidence that has been lost for a real albeit smaller exodus?

There are multiple resurrections in the Bible (Son of a Widow in Zarephath, Jairus’s Daughter, Lazarus, unknown saints during the crucifixion etc.) What makes Jesus' resurrection so special among all these from a biblical point of view?

Hello.

I'm researching the historical development of horror imagery for a long-term book project, and I'd like to better understand the biblical and Second Temple traditions that later influenced Western horror art.

Specifically, I'm looking for academic resources on topics such as:

1. Demons and unclean spirits, and other monstrous beings.

2. Angels in their original biblical descriptions.

3. Apocalyptic imagery.

4. Symbolic representations of evil in biblical literature.

I'm interested exclusively in historical-critical scholarship, not devotional or apologetic interpretations. If there are standard academic books, university lectures, journals, or scholars you would recommend as a starting point, I'd greatly appreciate your suggestions.

Thank you.

Per the Muratorian fragment, the John who wrote the apocalypse is a predecessor of Paul

>It is necessary for us to discuss these one by one, since the blessed apostle Paul himself, following the example of his predecessor John, writes by name to only seven churches in the following sequence: To the Corinthians first, to the Ephesians second, to the Philippians third, to the Colossians fourth, to the Galatians fifth, to the Thessalonians sixth, to the Romans seventh. It is true that he writes once more to the Corinthians and to the Thessalonians for the sake of admonition, yet it is clearly recognizable that there is one Church spread throughout the whole extent of the earth. For John also in the Apocalypse, though he writes to seven churches, nevertheless speaks to all.

The author is generally using Revelation as example of seven other letters written to specific churches with teachings that have universal application, but is there also a more specific claim of who wrote when? Is this saying that John had already written the apocalypse before Paul's letters? Is there any other way of understanding what this means? Does it just mean that John himself is older than Paul or had been a Christian for a longer time?

I've seen recently multiple influencers (most are non-denominational) claim that the idea of eternal condemnation isn't in the Bible, and universal salvation and Origen is the way to go.

To what extended is that real?

To add:

Is it true that no christian writer quoted or referred to them, until Origen in the 3rd century?
And second, until the 4th century, many christians did not believe they were written by the names attached to them?

I did find this.
James was quoted, by name essentially, well before Origen. Irenaeus (Against Heresies 4.16.2, c. 180 CE) cites James 2:23 — the "Abraham believed God... called the friend of God" line — directly. That's a full generation-plus before Origen. There are also earlier echoes that are more debated: 1 Clement (c. 96 CE) has language about Abraham as "friend of God" and faith/works themes that many scholars think draws on James or a shared tradition behind it, and the Shepherd of Hermas (mid-2nd century) has striking thematic overlap with James on double-mindedness, the tongue, and testing — again, either dependence or common tradition, actively debated. So James has a real, if thin, pre-Origen paper trail.

According to "Fragments from the Lost Writings of Irenaeus", Iranaeus seems to claim that Polycarp had met John and other disciples of Jesus

What is the academic opinion on the subject?

Some translations say of "staring at another man's wife, of playing around with his slave woman" and others say "flirting with a maid servant you have".

From my days in catholic education, infallibility of ecclesial authorities is a central concept. It is usually portrayed that this was how it always has been. I am curious, has there been any scholarly discussions or recent work done examining the concept of infallibility, when it arose, how did early Christians think of it, and how has the concept changed over time. I am aware that infallibility isn't the same as inerrancy. I am specifically asking how did the concept of infallible religious authorities developed in early Christianity. Did individuals, groups, churches, communities, or whatever claim infallible authority and if so, what was the wider view of such claims by other Christians at the time.

I recently started Paula Fredriksen's book on the history of sin, and in her prologue she states that the book goes over the development of sin in the West (which I'm looking forward to knowing about!).

However, is there any literature on the development of the concept of sin in the Eastern Churches, or a comparison between the development in the East vs. the West?

Any recommendations are welcome, thank you!!

Just so you know I don't think it applies even if it wasnt but I'm just curious I've heard many people say it was but I want to fact check

I understand that the biblical writers likely sincerely believed that worshipping other gods violated Israel’s covenant with YHWH and could result in divine punishment. However, I am wondering whether their opposition to these practices may also have reflected concerns about social/political fragmentation. If different regions, clans, households, and local priesthoods maintained their own cults, sanctuaries, and divine traditions, could this have made it more difficult to construct a unified Israelite identity?

From a secular perspective, it would make sense for the promotion of exclusive YHWH worship to have helped bring these different groups under one shared religious and cultural framework. A common deity, a shared ancestral history, a common body of law, and eventually a central sanctuary in Jerusalem could have strengthened the idea that Israel was one people rather than a loose collection of regional Levantine communities. In addition, having different priesthoods scattered across various temples and local sanctuaries may have created competing centers of religious authority, thus challenging a unified political project. These priesthoods may have had their own local traditions, economic interests, and relationships with surrounding communities, which could have made it more difficult for the monarchy or Jerusalem-based elites to establish a common religious and political order.

I am not suggesting that the biblical writers were political strategists who did not believe their own theology. However, I am wondering whether they may have understood loyalty to YHWH and political unity as closely connected. Could the biblical opposition to polytheism and local cults therefore have served both a theological purpose and a broader nation-building or ethnogenesis function? Is there current scholarship that discusses exclusive YHWH worship, monolatry, monotheism, or cult centralization in these terms?

Thank You

The book of Matthew is the only place that talks about the Magi from the East visiting Jesus--now such a profound event would have the whole town gossiping and it would be a story for the family to talk about for many many generations. King Herod was involved. This was a big deal. But according to the scripture Jesus' own brothers did not believe he said he was who he was and that is also to include Simon Peter and Thomas. How do we explain this anomaly?

I want to know the slight difference in the root word for "dying" in Mark 5:23 and Luke 8:42, and how the wording has changed in Matthew 19:18, which is "died" in the manuscripts in its original wording.

Hello everyone. Let me preface by saying that I am absolutely not an expert on the matter and that’s why I’m looking for some more information.

I stumbled upon the idea that Plato’s view of an “immortal” soul (as separated from the body/flesh) may have influenced the eschatology of the early CE period, possibly influencing Paul’s eschatological beliefs.
Is it a possibility or where can I read more about the influence of Greek philosophy in the NT?

EDIT: Thank you so much. This sub is amazing and extremely helpful!

gMatthew seems to use gMark but the author never tells us what he is using. 2 Peter seems to use Jude but the author never tells us what he is using. The apostolic fathers seem to often, if not always, let us know they’re using something.

How should we understand this difference? Does an ancient author using but not citing another author tell us anything about their view of the original text? Is it just a matter of genre?

Thank you!

When did the idea change from the traditional view of early Jews or Christians that the Earth was flat to the modern scientific idea that the Earth is round and a globe? When did this idea become mainstream or when was it first proposed that the Earth is round?