u/Easy-Policy-7404

Why is it that language families like indo european, uralic, turkic mongolic tungusic, and some other languages of the northern hemisphere all share "m-" for I, "t- / s-" for thou, and "k-" for interrogative?

I dont think I believe in the Eurasiatic or the Nostratic hypothesis. But I have a hard time believing these aspects were borrowed, as pronouns aren't likely to be transmitted between languages. And the idea of these similarities being produced by chance also seems unlikely, because these features aren't typologically common in other languages. What is the consensus on this?

The most recent effort to demonstrate a language relationship with the modern standard of evidence was Dene-Yeniseien. But the similarities between these two language families isn't as obvious as other, more younger relationships. The same could also be said with Afroasiatic, possibly the oldest family we will ever prove. Which is so ancient, there are no proven sound correspondences nor true confirmed cognates. (With pronouns and body parts sited as possible cognates) And is provable due to many non obvious similarities.

I feel like we've hit a point where most of the obvious language relationships have already been demonstdated. And if any others in the future get proven, it will be not so obvious. Would you agree?