u/Ecstatic_Refuse3278

Trinity through history.

If the Trinity is something that is unequivocally clear in both the Old and New Testaments, leaving no room for doubt, why is it that the prophets before Jesus, and even Jesus himself, never rebuked beliefs that appear contrary to Trinitarianism?

For example, the Shema states, “Hear, O Israel: the Lord our God, the Lord is one.” Likewise, passages such as Nehemiah 9:6 speak of the one true God. If these expressions of God’s oneness were incompatible with the doctrine of the Trinity, why were those who held such beliefs never corrected, rebuked, or anathematized during their time?

Furthermore, why do the first instances of formal anathematization appear only with the later Roman councils, when the doctrine was officially defined more than four centuries after Christ?

If the Trinity is truly the clear and obvious teaching of Scripture, why do we not see it explicitly taught, defended, and enforced by the prophets, Jesus, and the apostles themselves?

It’s either average readers are stupid or you’re enlightened.

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u/Ecstatic_Refuse3278 — 2 days ago