u/Expensive_Daikon6739

What is the most widely accepted model in current academic scholarship for explaining the formation of the four canonical Gospels—Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John—considering the Synoptic Problem, the Q source hypothesis, the possible written sources and oral traditions used by the evangelists, the literary relationships among the texts, and the latest developments in historical-critical research?

I often see apologists arguing that the similarities between the Epic of Gilgamesh and the biblical Flood narrative are merely coincidental. What criteria can we use to establish whether there is some form of textual dependence, literary borrowing, or copying between the two traditions?

How should the apparent duplication of the deaths of the five Amorite kings in Joshua 10:26–27 be understood? The text first states that Joshua killed them and then describes their execution again. Does this represent a narrative repetition, two distinct stages of execution, or a possible compositional/redactional tension within the account? What implications does this issue have for understanding the literary structure and textual development of Joshua 10?

Were the laws in Leviticus and Exodus actually followed by the Israelite population at the time? Or are they more of a “literary invention”? And if they were followed, were they actually observed strictly and in practice, or did people follow them only selectively?

In Isaiah 53:4–6, was the Servant's suffering vicarious (that is, did he suffer in the place of the guilty), or was it corporate (that is, did he suffer alongside the guilty while remaining personally innocent)?

In Isaiah 48:1–5, the prophet says that the people will see the fulfillment of the prophecies. But which prophecies are these? Are they the prophecies from Proto-Isaiah, meaning that the author is saying the earlier prophecies were already being fulfilled in his own time? Or are they the new prophecies being given in Deutero-Isaiah? I didn't quite understand this.

What are the proofs that YAWH was depicted as the sun? And when and where it happened?

I understand that the servant is the faithful and righteous remnant of Israel, who bears the burden of the nation's sin. But in Isaiah 42, the servant is described as "blind." Does this mean there are two servants—Israel as a whole, and this faithful remnant within Israel? Or is there another explanation?

In Isaiah 11, the prophet speaks of a Davidic ruler who will gather the exiles from Assyria. Would this be evidence that, for the author of Proto-Isaiah, the restoration of the Davidic kingdom was expected to occur in the near future?"