An intuitive way to price an option
Your option comprises of 2 parts: intrinsic and extrinsic values. Intrinsic value is the per-share difference (difference between underlying price and strike price). Extrinsic contains time-value which is confounded by IV, interest rates, dividends and probabilities. The extrinsic value part is what makes pricing say, a LEAPS contract, very tedious. Perhaps most retail traders ignore it entirely. But you shouldn't, and there is a way to meaningfully set a price target which is fair for you. You don't want to pay more because of the confounding factors.
The easiest way to figure out if your contract is cheap is to work out the borrowing rate of owning the contract. When you buy a deep ITM call instead of shares, you're effectively borrowing the strike price*. The cost of that loan is the time value you pay, plus any dividends you miss from not owning the shares.
Implied borrowing rate ~= (extrinsic value + dividends missed) / strike * (365 / DTE)
Extrinsic value = option price - (stock price - strike)
For example, say SPY is $760, and you are looking at a contract that is 365 DTE and 600 strike. This contract is deep ITM and is priced $188 (i.e. premium is 18,800, I felt like this needed to be said). Let's also assume SPY gives negligible dividends.
Time value = 188 - (760 - 600) = 28
So implied borrowing rate ~= (28 + 0) / 600 * (365 / 365) = 4.6%
What this means is you are borrowing $18,800 @ 4.6% EIR to buy this contract. IBKR's margin loan is roughly 5.4% now since the Fed hiked rates by 25 bps. A short Box Spread can, if you are lucky, give you a 5% EIR - close to the risk-free rate of 4.5-5%. By calculating the implied borrowing rate of the deep ITM LEAPS contract to be 4.6%, we know that the price of that leverage is really cheap.
You can work the math backwards to derive the premium:
Option price ~= (underlying price - strike price) + (strike price * borrowing rate * DTE / 365) - dividends
Note: premium = option price * 100 (I felt like this needed to be said again)
Note that borrowing rate here can be whatever you value to be good. 5% is great in the current market.
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You may also think that OTM contracts are cheaper leverage than ITM contracts, but this may not be true. While you are paying fewer dollars per delta, your contract is also entirely extrinsic value. This means you can get IV crushed very hard and your theta burns much faster than a deep ITM LEAPS. Over the course of a year, that OTM contract premium decays incredibly fast, and therefore it is expensive leverage. So, sticking to deep ITM LEAPS is the way to go.
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* Why are you borrowing the strike price? The person who sold you the call has to hold the shares for you until expiry. They are sitting on that market value for the tenor and should be paid an interest on it. The $28 (see time value example) is exactly what you pay them, per share.
Took me a while to write this. Enjoy.
EDIT: amended the DTE in my equation. thanks u/PapaCharlie9