"Why is it that when western powers became rulers of Muslim lands it's called colonialism but when Muslims did the same it's not called colonialism?" - I come across this argument often online and I would like to know the proper response to it
Like when Italy ruled Libya, British ruled Egypt, France ruled the rest of North Africa it's called colonization. But when the Muslim empires expanded and took over the Middle East, North Africa, Spain, Balkans it's not called colonization, even though the Arabs settled in MENA region and Spain, changed the Berber culture and language with Arabic. When Ottoman Turks took over the Balkan lands. Why isn't it called Muslim colonization if the western Christian takeover is viewed as colonization? - how do you respond to this?
u/Firm-While-5887 — 1 month ago