Riba: rich vs poor.
I am confused as to why people say riba makes the rich richer and keeps the poor poorer.
Say there are two Muslims in the West. One rich and one poor. The rich Muslim (due to family wealth, etc…) is able to buy a home without riba because they have the capital; whereas, a poorer Muslim cannot buy a home as riba is haram. In the West, we have seen asset prices increase dramatically and this has led to those who did not take riba poorer while the rich Muslims who can buy a home without riba is richer. Ironically, this has made the poor poorer and the richer richer.
There is no doubt riba is haram but can someone solve this dilemma for me?