u/Gold_Philosopher4205

Hi everyone,

am currently reading Anthony Kaldellis' wonderful book The New Roman Empire, in which he explains how the people of the ERE consistently regarded themselves as Romans.

Yet, in one of the chapters, he quotes an Armenian text from the fifth century that says: "We cannot become servants of the heathen Persians or be hostile to the king of the Greeks. Neither can we carry on hostilities with both of them. We cannot maintain ourselves without the support of one of them."

So I struggle to understand why an Armenian author would refer to the emperor as "King of the Greeks" and not as "King of the Romans."

I would appreciate any insight into this issue. Thanks!