u/HumanLadder3

I know that technically the decree and corresponding ruling today only apply to cases filed filed post decree. However I can’t help but wonder whether these developments have affected judges’ attitudes towards pre-decree cases. For instance, even anecdotally, do we know whether a higher portion of pre-decree 1948 cases are being rejected for technicalities or other reasons?

Full disclosure I have a pre-decree 1948 case scheduled for hearing in Milan in a couple months