u/Independent-Wash-176

When must a subjunctive trigger be followed by a change of subject for the subjunctive to be necessary.

Seven years into my Spanish studies I am more comfortable than I ever thought I'd be with subjunctive triggers and subjunctive conjugation BUT... the one thing holding me back is that I'm still getting used to the fact that in some cases the subjunctive trigger must be accompanied by a change of subject for the subjunctive to be called for. Specifically, it seems that if the subjunctive trigger is in the conditional, past preterite or past imperfect tense, followed by a change of subject, then the resulting subjunctive will be in the subjunctive imperfect ("ARA") tense, but if there is no a change of subject, a regular infinitive is used. Are the following sentences correct? Looking forward to your guidance. Thanks in advance.

  1. Conditional trigger: Me alegrarìa mucho terminar la tarea pronto. / Me alegraría mucho si mi esposa y yo termináramos la tarea pronto.

  2. Past imperfect: Yo esperaba ir a la fiesta, pero no pude ir. / Yo esperaba que ella pudiera ir a la fiesta conmigo, pero no pudo ir.

  3. Preterite. Me alegró mucho haber ganada el partido. / Me alegró mucho que ella ganara el partido.

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Nicknames for people who live in different cities in Colombia

OK, so so far I know...

(1) A person, or people who live in Bogota are Rollo / Rollos. Is that for both sexes?

(2) A person, or people who live in Medellin are Paisa /Paisas. Is that for both sexes?

(3) A person, or people who live in Cali are Calena / Calenas... or is it Caleñas? And is that for both sexes?

(4) and finally, a person, or people who live in Bucaramanga are Boumanges / Boumangeses? Spelling? And, again, is that for both sexes?

If you guys can add some more, that would be great. I've learned that when you meet a Colombian, they get a real kick out of it you ask them if they are a Rollo, a Paisa, or a Calena. They look at you like: He's not supposed to know that! :)

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u/Independent-Wash-176 — 2 months ago

Greetings all, I recently asked a question about whether Quedar and Faltar were more or less interchangeable as far as distance and time, as in "¿Cuanto tiempo queda / falta hasta que lleguemos?" Thanks for all your very helpful responses. Today's question has to do with a third option that came up in lessons but honestly I've never seen or heard it used in la vida diaria. That third term is "tardar." Is "¿Cuanto tiempo tarda hasta que lleguemos?" commonly used? Is it any different, in this sense, from using quedar or faltar?

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u/Independent-Wash-176 — 4 months ago
▲ 11 r/Spanish

Greetings all,

Is there a difference in meaning between using Quedar or Faltar when discussing distance or time? I've heard both and they appear to be used interchangably. If they are the same, is one more commonly used in Latin America? For example...

(1) ¿Cuánto tiempo queda en el partido?

(2) ¿Cuánto tiempo falta en el partido?

(3) ¿Cuantas millas quedan hasta que leguemos a su casa?

(4) ¿Cuantas millas faltan hasta que leguemos a su casa?

Thanks in advance?

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u/Independent-Wash-176 — 4 months ago