u/Murky_Opportunity93

Compared to a lot of other proto languages where the 1sg & 1pl and 2sg & 2pl are clearly related, why is it that inital 1sg *Hm- or *(H)é- is *w or why inital 2sg *t- is *y-? Is there anything in verb forms or other fossilized evidence that could explain why this distinction is made?

Is there any possibility that, during or before the Chinese Civil War, the CCP would become a satellite or at least reliant on Moscow? I've only really ever seen scenarios of unity between them, but what about occupation? If so, how would that affect the cold war? Also, I'd adjust how much of China the CCP would control relative to the realistic extent the Soviets can handle under their sphere, even if it's just Manchuria and Mengukuo or something.