u/No-Corner-2442

▲ 2 r/AmazighPeople+1 crossposts

The Etymology of the term Berber and Why I don't have any Problem with it.

> The Greeks called everyone who didn't speak Greek βάρβαρος/Barbaros. It's an Onomatopoeia which is meant to mimic how foreign languages sounded to them, “bar bar bar.” (Berbers, Egyptians, Persians, and at some point in time, even Romans were called Barbaros by the Greeks)

 

> The Romans adopted the term as Barbarus and used it to refer to people whom they deemed to be uncivilized. Greeks, Persians, and Egyptians (Although they still looked down on the Persians and Egyptians) weren't called Barbarus by the Romans, but the Germanic Tribes of Northern Europe and the Tribes of North Africa, west of Egypt, were (for the most part) referred to using this term.

 

> The Arabs loaned the term from Greek/Latin (Barbarus → Barbar) and used it to refer to the people west of Egypt. So technically, they were the first ones who used it to refer solely to the Berbers. In fact, the Romans used it more to refer to their northern neighbours. “بَرْبَرِيٌّ” developed in Modern Standard Arabic through later borrowings to unfortunately have two meanings: Berber and Barbaric.

 

> The French then loaned the term from Arabic (Barbar → Berbère) and used it to refer to the non Arab speaking population in their North African Colonies.

 

> The English word “Berber” actually comes from French (Berbère → Berber)

 

Personally, I don't have any problem with the term 'Berber'; I identify as Berber (Ashelhi, to be exact). While the word shares the same root as 'barbaric,' they aren't the same word. It developed independently as it passed from one language to another. It’s an exonym with a fascinating history, reflecting the different peoples and cultures we have interacted with over time.

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u/No-Corner-2442 — 6 days ago

I did vs I have done vs I had done

same for: I was doing, I have been doing, and I had been doing.

I had trouble understanding the textbook's grammar explanation. Could someone please explain the difference between these three with examples? It would be a huge help.

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u/No-Corner-2442 — 8 days ago
▲ 2 r/Agadir

Tashelhit Speakers % in Agadir and its surroundings

https://preview.redd.it/ituny7smko0h1.png?width=850&format=png&auto=webp&s=bdd2753a8765d77c334e8fe603db8c3d18f05910

According to the last census (2024). Agadir, Inzggan, Ait Mllul, and Ddcayra all have 50% or less of Berber Speakers. I mean, you don't have ot be a scientist to tell that Tashelhit is dying, but it's kind of crazy that even in Agadir, people who speak Tashelhit are now a minority. What do you guys think about this? Do you believe the city is losing (or has lost) part of what makes it unique?

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u/No-Corner-2442 — 11 days ago
▲ 114 r/scifi

I’m looking for a new time travel series to dive into. I love the genre, but I feel like I’ve hit most of the "must-watch" lists already. Here are the shows I’ve already finished:

  • 11.22.63
  • 12 Monkeys
  • Steins;Gate
  • Travelers
  • Dark
  • Outlander (I know it’s not strictly sci-fi. I actually stopped watching during Season 4 back in 2019. If you’ve kept up with it, is the rest of the show worth finishing?)
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u/No-Corner-2442 — 17 days ago

I get that Neo-Tifinagh looks great, and is a variation of a script that existed in these lands for a long time. It also serves as a differentiator to distinguish our tongues from other languages. I personally can write and read Neo-Tifinagh just fine, but I still strongly believe it was the wrong choice.

Indonesian, Malay, Turkish, and many other languages use the Latin script not because it was part of their deep history, but because of its practicality; almost everyone in the world can read it, and it's easy to change and adapt to fit any language. I get that having "ⵜⴰⴳⵍⴷⵉⵜ ⵏ ⵍⵎⵖⵔⵉⴱ" in your passport instead of "Tagldit n Lmɣrib" might seem cooler, but if almost no one can read it, then it's just symbolism; you might as well write some gibberish in Neo-Tifinagh and almost no one would notice.

For Example, Stop signs might have "ⴱⴷⴷ" written in them in Souss, but almost no one can read that. However, if you wrote the same exact word in the Latin script "BDD", all Tashelhit speakers can now read and understand what's actually written on the sign, heck even non-Tashelhit speakers can now learn a new word, because there is no Script Barrier.

Writing Berber Languages in Neo-Tifinagh has alienated Berbers from their own languages. If it were written in the Latin Script, almost everyone can read words like "Tinml = School", "Ammas = Center", or even learn that an agency is "Tasnurayt" in Moroccan Standard Tamazight. But no, let's use a script that no one can read, and also let's not teach it to almost anyone 15 years after Morocco's constitution recognized Berber as an "Official Language".

What do you guys think?!

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u/No-Corner-2442 — 22 days ago