u/Ok-Committee-2053

My husband had his first girlfriend when he was 17, a senior in high school. During their relationship she had cancer and he was there for her during a lot of the surgeries, treatments, etc. She had some mental health issues in the past, and said he’s the reason she didn’t unalive herself. They dated for 4 1/2 years when they broke up because he said he didn’t see a serious relationship going forward (she cheated on him during that time). So he started dating other people and so did she, and he was single around 2 years later and she was engaged. He had kept a good relationship with her parents and so he was dog sitting for them. He hadn’t spoken to her is like years, but we they talk again - she ends up breaking off her engagement because she had a “dream”. They did not rekindle. So enter me into the picture we started dating 2 years ago, and got married a few months back. So in the time we’ve been together she has:
- Sent him a text telling him congrats on dating me and wishing us the best but she’s grateful she got to be his “first” everything
- Sent me a message to say she had items at a garage sale if I wanted use anything for our wedding (she got married a few months before us.)
- I introduced myself at church and she says “do you know who I am” Yes lady…. I do.

So enter his grandparents - She was always close with his grands, her own had passed. She especially loves his grandad. She would text his grandad and complain about things, how marriage for her has been hard, etc. So recently she’s found she was pregnant and she’s asked his grandparents is she can name the baby after his grandad……

SO AITA for being irritated and shocked at the audacity of that? They’ve been broken up for 5 years, never talk, never see any of the other family members. So why name the baby after his family, intentionally? What if we wanted to use the name? I’ve been told that her family is “just different” whenever the previous things pop up and occur - But naming a kid after his family just seems too far.