u/One-League269

In 1 Corinthians 8,6, St.Paul writes that there is only one God, the Father,and one Lord, Jesus Christ. In all his letters, St.Paul calls the Lord Jesus "kuploc" ( Lord) and " kuplov" (of the Lord). But why does he use the same term for Jehovah in 1 Corinthians 10,21? Why doesn't he use the Greek term for God the Father that he uses in other passages of his letters? Another question is this:why does Jesus say " my cup" and "my table" in Matthew 20,23 and Luke 22,30? Wouldn't it have been more correct to say the Father's cup? Did his words perhaps make Jehovah jealous?

The ancient texts and all the translations clearly say that Jesus is not. " that holy " but is " The Holy " just like God ! They also say that Jesus is not an " agent " , but is " The Author , The Prince, The Chief Leader "- (archegon) - of life, just like God !

This hilarious watchtower tells us that Jesus is both the archangel Michael and the man dressed in linen....how can such nonsense be written,given the context of those Biblical passages? What credibility do those who write such nonsense have?