u/Orinoca99

I had a fascinating read in this group and it really got me thinking!

TL;DR This group is potentially useful. If we pay attention to the entirety of the Bible, aspects of Revelations could manifest in an obvious, noticeable way. (Not saying they definitely will, but Biblical logic supports that it would.) Literal interpretations of the Bible are completely encouraged throughout the Old Testament and New Testament! Spiritual meaning vs literal meaning are not mutually exclusive, polarized, or at odds with one another. In fact, these are two sides of the same coin. The spiritual and physical work in tandem, in perfect harmony**, and we see this demonstrated throughout the Bible! The Bible overall argues you** should consider both the spiritual meanings AND the literal manifestations of the Bible.

You cannot have the physical without the spiritual, and vise versa.

Here I will demonstrate:
The New Testament frequently used literal interpretations of the Old Testament prophecies to support Jesus' divinity.
Examples:

1. Jesus Himself (pretty important!) Luke 24, "beginning with Moses and all the Prophets, he interpreted to them in all the Scriptures the things concerning himself"
2. Matthew's entire Gospel was written specifically to Jews to prove Jesus was the messiah using super literal geographical and literal details (Jesus' birthplace in Micah 5:2, Jesus' vigil birth Isaiah 7:14, Jesus entry via donkey in Zechariah 9:9
3. Peter uses Psalm 16:10 to make a case that Jesus was literally physically resurrected
4. Paul went into Jewish synagogues and reasoned with people using scriptures in Acts 17:2-3
5. (and many more examples)

There are numerous spiritual meanings behind not only every verse in the Bible, but even every word. In fact, one word in the Bible can be dissected into a kaleidoscope of layered spiritual meanings. And yet, the Bible demonstrates that we not only can but also should pay close attention to the ways prophecies can literally physically manifest.

For example: “And I will pour out on the house of David and the inhabitants of Jerusalem a spirit of grace and pleas for mercy, so that, when they look on me, on him whom they have pierced, they shall mourn for him, as one mourns for an only child, and weep bitterly over him, as one weeps over a firstborn." Zechariah 12:10 (OT)

And now let us skip forward to the New Testament: "Instead, one of the soldiers pierced Jesus’ side with a spear, bringing a sudden flow of blood and water. The man who saw it has given testimony, and his testimony is true. He knows that he tells the truth, and he testifies so that you also may believe. These things happened so that the scripture would be fulfilled: “Not one of his bones will be broken,”and, as another scripture says, “They will look on the one they have pierced.” John 19 (NT)

Jesus was, quite literally, pierced with a sword, as the messiah was cryptically pierced in the OT. His bones were also, literally not broken. Now, we can dive into why Jesus had to die on the cross, His sacrifice, and all of the meanings of pierce such as His pure heart being pierced by the sins of the world, and many countless other meanings. However, the physical and literal manifestation is emphasized in the Bible equally to the spiritual manifestations, because they are beautifully intertwined. To miss that is, in my opinion, missing the brilliant and beautiful harmony in the Bible. A parallel would be Jesus' divine birth. Jesus was fully man (flesh, human) and fully divine, just as meanings in the Bible are both fully literal/physical and fully spiritual. One does not counteract the other. For example, I think of it more like the iceberg model. The part that you can see is the physical manifestation of a spiritual truth, with the spiritual truth (the bulk) remaining underwater and hence unseen with physical senses. However, both are existing simultaneously in different realms at the same time! I pray for those who do not recognize this awe inspiring harmony!

John recognized Jesus as the long awaited messiah or Son of God and equally used OT verses to support his claim! "Instead, one of the soldiers pierced Jesus’ side with a spear, bringing a sudden flow of blood and water. The man who saw it has given testimony, and his testimony is true. He knows that he tells the truth, and he testifies so that you also may believe. These things happened so that the scripture would be fulfilled: “Not one of his bones will be broken,”and, as another scripture says, “They will look on the one they have pierced.” John 19 (NT)

John is demonstrating his attention to detail to Old Testament prophecy. Here, John is using "his eyes to see" and applying his understanding of Old Testament prophecy as evidence that Jesus is the messiah rather than using it to deny Jesus' divinity, as the Pharisees did.

So here is the riddle: is "overly literal" Biblical interpretation to blame for blinding people to spiritual truths (example, the Pharisees not recognizing that Jesus is the messiah)? Or is it something else at play... (having eyes to see and ears to hear, having faith, being one of Jesus' sheep, etc). I would argue it cannot possibly be literal Biblical interpretation to blame for blinding people to Jesus, otherwise John would not be able to use literal Biblical interpretation to support Jesus' divinity. There is a deeper factor at play when people are blinded by legalism or very strict Biblical analysis, and I would argue it is faith or lack of faith. Literal Biblical interpretation is clearly not an obstacle for seeing the truth, so long as one simultaneously analyzes the spiritual.