Psalms 49:19 and Postmortem Revelation
i'm aware that this passage has already come up a handful of times on this page, however i did not find the proceeding discussions in those instances to be very decisive or relevant to the true heart of the issue. i believe it is accurate to say that the death spoken of in this chapter is not an eternal, spiritual destination, but rather the departure from earthly existence into the realm of the dead/the grave (Sheol). the issue for me—which is, with full sincerity, preventing me from converting to universalism—is that this passage says the avaricious will never see the light of day again, and creates a direct contrast between the greedy, arrogant man and those who trust in The LORD as their guide with v. 15: "But God will redeem my soul from the power of Sheol..." (NASB95 [my emphasis]). those who go into death who trust in Adonai are delivered from its power, but those who rendered wealth and status as their god are not liberated from Sheol, and will never again see the light of day. if we are taking death within this section to be literal, physical death, then it must follow that the righteous man who is saved in v. 15 is being saved from that death and will again see the LIGHT of day. i make that point because i have seen many who, due to the likely reality that the passage speaks of earthly death, conclude that this psalm is irrelevant to the issue of the apokatastasis. however, this tension is not related to what kind of death is referenced here, but that one is saved from it (the righteous) and one never is (the wicked). i think its obvious that "the light" is an idiom from what is enjoyed by the delivered and what is withheld from those who go "into the generation of their fathers," if we are taking "light" to mean "earthly life," and if the obedient being redeemed from "Sheol" means he is saved from "earthly death."
i also do not think linguistics solves this issue, as it seems that regarding "ad nasah" here to be literally "to the end" or "until the conclusion of the age" betrays the data of the passage, as this psalm does not appear to contain any eschatological scope or concept of an approaching "end" that i can deduce, not to mention the same psalmist(s) employs living "nasah" as a contrast to undergoing decay (v. 9).
universalists, help me out here? (also, i hope i do not come off as arrogant or pompous, i am coming to this subreddit after engaging in several discussions which left me dissatisfied, so i wanted to provide conversational context) peace from our Great God and Savior, Jesus The Anointed!