u/Puzzleheaded-Law34

Hello, I recently went to a hair clinic and they told me that minoxidil and finasteride often don't work because they both rely on the blood vessels being in close contact to the hair follicle, which is not the case for weakened follicles. They prescribe a comprehensive treatment based on strengthening the follicle itself.

The center is relatively legit as far as I know, but I know hair treatment clinics prioritize profit and may sell products with dubious results. However the reasoning did make sense to me, and as I've been on min&fin for months without effect, I was considering it.

Do any of you have experience with topical oils and shampoos with other compounds geared more toward scalp health and revitalizing the follicle? Is this reliable stuff or is it bogus? Thanks!

I was told this is a misinterpretation, since "once you have a confidence interval, the true value is either in it or it isn't". However, that phrase could be applied to anything in statistics, the point is that we don't know the true value so we estimate probability. You could say once you flip a coin, "it's either heads or tails. You don't have a 50% chance that it's heads".

From what I know the C.I. is created such that, when repeatedly sampling N times, the interval will contain the true parameter 95% of those times. Then, from the point of view that I have obtained a CI, I should be able to say "there is a 95% chance that it's one of those times" = "There is a 95% chance it contains the true parameter". How are these not equivalent?

Hello! I am considering a small program change (I know it will be accepted) for fall semester, for the sake of starting my thesis in that topic as soon as possible. The master coordinator said I could start as soon as the process goes through, "i.e. 1st August".

Does that mean 1st August is the earliest possible date even if I request a change now? Do you ever start the thesis unofficially earlier while the organizational stuff happens?

Thanks

Hello! I'm trying to wrap my head around adjusting for confounders, and don't quite get how it works in regression. I understand the stratification concept, i.e if you want to estimate effect of exposure X on outcome Y, you separate for say 3 levels of a categorical confounder Z and see per level what the RR is. But what if you have too many levels? It's combined via dummy variables from what I know, but I don't understand how the many estimates are actually combined into one coefficient.

I know you try to estimate the effect of X when all other variables are kept constant, but what if the effect of one stratum is totally different- then you would lose that when you combine the effects, no? I.e., 20 levels and level 10 has a huge correlation while the others are moderate.

A bit confused...