u/Sea_Finding2061

I have an auto policy and a rental/home policy with Erie. I rent my house and keep my car there because I’m a student living off campus.

I recently bought a motorcycle and told Erie that I would be storing the motorcycle at my parents’ house because they have a garage. I specifically said the motorcycle would be garaged there, and that nothing was changing with where my car was kept.

A couple months later, I checked my declarations page and noticed that Erie now lists my parents’ address as the garaging location for both my car and motorcycle.

I never asked them to change the car’s garaging address and never told them that the car was being stored at my parents’ house.

Could this cause problems down the road if I get into an accident with my car, since the policy documents incorrectly list my parents’ address as the car’s garaging location? Should I contact Erie now to have it corrected, or is this something that generally wouldn’t cause an issue with a claim? I do stay at my parents house couple days a week but I primary reside at my own apartment. The rate is slightly lower but negligible difference.

Perhaps that was the initial plan with Mahmoud Ahmadi and Kurds propping him up.

Back in 2020, my ex-husband and I filed a joint return. I was a W-2 employee; he was a 1099 contractor. After our divorce, I applied for and was granted Innocent Spouse Relief for that return due to financial abuse during the marriage.

Fast forward to now: my ex filed an amended return/adjustment for that same 2020 tax year — apparently to claim an extra $1,000 for himself. The IRS took that amount out of my 2025 refund, even though I have Innocent Spouse Relief on file for that year.

I have contacted them several times over the past couple months saying that:

Sent them documentation of my Innocent Spouse Relief approval
Called and explained that my ex filed this adjustment 5 years after the original return
Explained the refund offset that already happened

Now I’ve received a CP22A notice saying I owe the same amount again, with no explanation beyond “this was an adjustment.”

When I call the IRS, they tell me to talk to the Innocent Spouse Relief department. When I call that department, they say they’ve “done everything they can” and to go back to the regular IRS line.

My questions are first of all why are they asking for the same amount of payment again? They already took that money out of my 2025 tax return and I just got the letter today saying I owe the amount and I need to send it to avoid interest.

Second question is what can I do? I already sent them an application for appeal and the departments are clearly confused. My ex has and is up to shady things and I believe this is fraud but why is the irs going along with it.

Back in 2020, my ex-husband and I filed a joint return. I was a W-2 employee; he was a 1099 contractor. After our divorce, I applied for and was granted Innocent Spouse Relief for that return due to financial abuse during the marriage.

Fast forward to now: my ex filed an amended return/adjustment for that same 2020 tax year — apparently to claim an extra $1,000 for himself. The IRS took that amount out of my 2025 refund, even though I have Innocent Spouse Relief on file for that year.

I have contacted them several times over the past couple months saying that:

Sent them documentation of my Innocent Spouse Relief approval
Called and explained that my ex filed this adjustment 5 years after the original return
Explained the refund offset that already happened

Now I’ve received a CP22A notice saying I owe the same amount again, with no explanation beyond “this was an adjustment.”

When I call the IRS, they tell me to talk to the Innocent Spouse Relief department. When I call that department, they say they’ve “done everything they can” and to go back to the regular IRS line.

My questions are first of all why are they asking for the same amount of payment again? They already took that money out of my 2025 tax return and I just got the letter today saying I owe the amount and I need to send it to avoid interest.

Second question is what can I do? I already sent them an application for appeal and the departments are clearly confused. My ex has and is up to shady things and I believe this is fraud but why is the irs going along with it.

So I recently got sole title to our former marital home via a recorded deed and I’m still on the mortgage, but my ex-husband is not on title anymore.

The homeowners policy is still in his name only as he was primary and I used to not live in the property and premiums get paid automatically out of mortgage escrow.

I called the insurance to cancel the policy since it’s now just me. They told me they need my ex’s consent to cancel it, and if they can’t reach him or he doesn’t agree, it “goes to underwriting” for review. I sent them a copy of the recorded deed showing he has no ownership interest anymore.
I’m getting a brand new policy in my own name regardless, so coverage isn’t the issue. My real question is about the escrow/mortgage side:

Is a recorded quit claim deed showing he is no longer on title enough to satisfy underwriting if they cannot reach him/he refuses to consent to policy being canceled?

Secondly if they hypothetically refuse to cancel (low odds) could I instruct my escrow not to pay for that policy as I have a new policy in effect and paid for?

I got my license through the MSF course and we did not practice incline start/stops. That was the extent of my practice. I now bought a 300cc bike and practicing it on country/residential roads and there’s a lot of hills with stop signs at the top of them.

I have been using the rear brake to stop me from slipping and then using the clutch and throttle which is what I read online but I did an unintentional wheelie but thankfully stopped myself and got the bike back in control.

Do I just need more practice with friction zone and not letting out the clutch? Is it possible to start from second gear instead of first because I think that has more power but I was told to always be at first.

I’m my freaking god.

Is Trump not aware that the drones are Russian modified and they’re also giving them US base coordinates for Iran to target?

They’re already involved and Trump needs to do something about that.

Drip drip they’re adding more ground forces, including medics.

Ground invasion preparations?

Long story short I bought one property when I was married with ex as marital prop. We divorced and I let her live and pay the mortgage. She stopped paying and would not agree to sell the prop until it went to foreclosure where I stepped in, got the property under my name and paid off the late payment and bought the payments current. Plan is now to move there and live there. She had missed a year of payment before she transferred her half to me.

Now going back to right after the divorce. I bought and financed a duplex. I did that because my income has and still is around $150k. I got an interest rate of 8.5% because of the first mortgage still being under my name and also because they considered a rental property even though my intention had been to live there. Even then the upstairs unit rented for 1400 with total mortgage including property taxes and insurance being $2800.

I am now moving into the first property that was behind for a year and need to refinance the first property as now I’m paying for two mortgages. My question is can I refinance the property that I have never been late on?

I have already leased both units of the duplex bringing about the mortgage amount for that property.

Edit to add that an appraisal was done this month on this property showing that I have about $130k of equity.

I received a property in Beaver County, PA via quitclaim deed from ex. I was already on the title. Trying to sort out lien exposure.

The PA Department of Revenue’s own online lien search shows a lien against the prior owner and it shows a docket number, the amount and the county it was and date it was filed which was 3 years ago.

However, I went in person to the Beaver County Prothonotary and ran a Judgment Index Inquiry directly by the person’s name. Every other lien/judgment against them shows up cleanly (a federal tax lien, a mechanics lien, a municipal claim), but this specific lien does not appear anywhere in the county’s system.

Is it possible that I missed this lien? Is it possible that they did not record the lien at the prothonotary even tho the site claims it was filed?

I went back twice once before the transfer and once after and both times I did not see it. Could pa revenue liens be attached somewhere other than the judgment tab?

I received a property in Beaver County, PA via quitclaim deed from ex. Trying to sort out lien exposure before finalizing title work.

The PA Department of Revenue’s own online lien search shows a lien against the prior owner and it shows a docket number, the amount and the county it was and date it was filed which was 3 years ago.

However, I went in person to the Beaver County Prothonotary and ran a Judgment Index Inquiry directly by the person’s name. Every other lien/judgment against them shows up cleanly (a federal tax lien, a mechanics lien, a municipal claim), but this specific lien does not appear anywhere in the county’s system.

Is it possible that I missed this lien? Is it possible that they did not record the lien at the prothonotary even tho the site claims it was filed?

I went back twice once before the transfer and once after and both times I did not see it. Could pa revenue liens be attached somewhere other than the judgment tab?

Background: My ex and I divorced, and a jointly-titled property was not addressed in the divorce decree. The reason it wasn’t included was because my ex was physically and financially abusive during the marriage, and about a year after the divorce I obtained a Protection From Abuse (restraining) order against them from a judge. The property was left out of the settlement due to this history.

The transfer: The property went into foreclosure due to missed mortgage payments. In early 2026, my ex quitclaimed their interest in the property to me. At that time:
I took full control of the mortgage(~$302K) and paid roughly $28,400 to cure the default and reinstate the loan. They are still on the loan but hadn’t paid for 15 months and I am now paying monthly.

There was an IRS federal tax lien against my ex (100k) attached to the property, which has since been resolved via a Certificate of Non-Attachment (IRS Form 669-N).

I obtained an appraisal around the time of transfer, while the house was still in foreclosure and it showed approximately $40,000 in equity above the remaining mortgage balance.

My concern: If my ex files Chapter 7, could a trustee try to avoid/unwind this transfer as fraudulent (11 U.S.C. §548) or under Pennsylvania’s UVTA (4-year lookback via §544(b))? I assumed real debt and lien exposure, and have appraisal/documentation showing values at the time, but I don’t know how courts weigh that if trustee challenges the transfer.

I have also spent $20k so far fixing and improving the property as it was abandoned and full of mold in the basement.

My qs:
Whether assuming a mortgage + curing default + absorbing a tax lien counts as “reasonably equivalent value” against \~$40K of equity?

How much the abuse history / PFA order factors into a court’s view of the transfer’s legitimacy?