
In Psalm 1, why does the Septuagint differ from the Masoretic Text already in verse 4?
How come there are already differences between the Septuagint and the Masoretic Text in Psalm 1:4? I'm also aware that there are differences between the two in Psalms 2 and 3 (on which I will make a future post later on), but what explains that? Is it not the more reasonable suppostion that the LXX is generally interpretive and that the differences here and elsewhere are the result of LXX interpretation, or could there be a possibility that the differences are due to some Hebrew text no longer in existence which the LXX translated?
Edit: Here are the translations and reconstruction in text:
The Masoretic Text:
>לֹא־כֵ֥ן הָרְשָׁעִ֑ים כִּ֥י אִם־כַּ֝מֹּ֗ץ אֲֽשֶׁר־תִּדְּפֶ֥נּוּ רֽוּחַ׃
The Jewish Publication Society Tanakh, 1917:
>Not so the wicked; but they are like the chaff which the wind driveth away.
The Septuagint:
>οὐχ οὕτως οἱ ἀσεβεῖς, οὐχ οὕτως, ἀλλ᾿ ἢ ὡσεὶ χνοῦς, ὃν ἐκρίπτει ὁ ἄνεμος ἀπὸ προσώπου τῆς γῆς.
Brenton’s English Septuagint:
>Not so the ungodly;—not so: but rather as the chaff which the wind scatters away from the face of the earth.
A reconstruction of a hypothetical Hebrew base for the Septuagint reading:
לא-כן הרשעים לא-כן: כי אם-כמץ אשר-תדפנו רוח מפני הארץ: