u/Weng_Haori38503

Distinguished Redditors,

I, u/Weng_Haori38503 may propose to you a new fallacy called "Qui tacet consentire videtur" which means "Whoever remains silence is consented". Distinguished Redditors, this phrase didn't make any senses because it says Y(X) ⊢Z(X) if X = Anybody, Y = silences, Z = shows consent, because Y(X) shows that X is abstain to neither Z nor ¬Z.

In this regard, I may invite all the expert logicians to cast your opinion down here in the comment section whether you are in favor of letting this be a New Fallacy or not.

Respect,

u/Weng_Haori38503.

[NON-EXPERT] I mean when a Government Organisation like CIA/FSB/MI6 spy on another country without permission for intelligent purposes, is that a violation against the territorial sovereignty or against the International Law? If yes, does that mean CIA and other National Intelligence Agencies were outlaws? And, could the spied country sue with ICJ or ask UNSC for support?

Idk if this vid had already been posted in this Subreddit but if no, I've. To MUN Experts: if you got some additionals please advise me.

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