u/leeleewonchu

Purely hypothetical legal question about US law.

Suppose a man consensually has sex with a woman. Afterwards, without his knowledge or consent, semen is collected and later used to artificially inseminate a different willing woman.

Assume:

no sexual assault occurred, the inseminated woman fully consented, nobody intends to seek child support or future involvement from the man, the man never consented to reproductive use of his genetic material.

Would this itself generally be illegal in the US? If so, under what kind of legal theory would it fall - theft, fraud, reproductive coercion, privacy violation, unauthorized medical procedure, etc.?