Hi there,
A 67 year old patient with vague epigastric complaints.
Are those PR depressions genuine or am I missing something?
Other than that I don't see anything acute
Thanks for any input.
Hi,
Would you flag this tracing as a possible Type A Wellens' syndrome? I see a biphasic (positive-negative) pattern in some leads, though it looks more like an artifact: symptoms were ongoing for 7 hours and suggested gastroenteritis rather than cardiac issues. I’m 99% sure it isn't Wellens' (without having checked what the baseline looked like), but I wanted to get the opinion of those with more experience. Troponin negative (twice). No ST-segment elevation in posterior leads.
Thanks in advance.
Hi there!
I just wanted to get some perspective on the above given that there is some conflicting info on the subject and no recommendations on how to approach the diagnosis.
What do you usually do if the urinalysis shows repeated evidently increased leukocytes with few bacteria
My patient is a 52 year old female with on symptoms, no risk factors for uroepithelial neoplasms, unremarkable sexual history (has been evaluated by a gynecologist and treated for vaginitis but without real symptoms and with negative microbiology results for it, didn't change how the urine look like)
Her leukocytes were initially about 50 per visual field, after instructing her on how to take the sample dropped to 20; the last result was about 30
there was no microhematuria
her ultrasound is unremarkable
do you get patients like that (I havent really seen persistent results like that. How do you proceed?