u/whatzgood

>"But in those days, after that suffering, the sun will be darkened, and the moon will not give its light, and the stars will be falling from heaven, and the powers in the heavens will be shaken." Mark 13:24-25 NRSVUE

Was this meant to refer to literal stars? Does the original Greek allow it to refer to meteorites?

I also vaguely remember some scholars referring to cosmic battles between demons happening in the heavens, is that something that could be going on here as well?

I've been told that the NRSVUE is the translation often used by scholars and is thus most likely closer to what the authors meant.

The vast majority of translations qualify the time of distress mentioned as not having been equaled from the start of nations UNTIL THAT TIME.;

> "And there shall be a time of trouble, such as never has been since there was a nation till that time." - ESV

> "and there hath been a time of distress, such as hath not been since there hath been a nation till that time" - YLT

> "and it will be a time of distress that never was since a nation existed until that time"- Judaica Press

> "and there shall be a time of trouble, such as never was since there was a nation even to that same time" - Mechon Mamre

I do not know Hebrew, but even the direct text breakdown seems to suggest this interpretation: https://biblehub.com/text/daniel/12-1.htm

Meanwhile, the NRSVUE and its previous edition leaves the "until then" qualifier out;

> “At that time Michael, the great prince, the protector of your people, shall arise. There shall be a time of anguish **such as has never occurred since nations first came into existence.[end]**But at that time your people shall be delivered, everyone who is found written in the book."

Was curious as to the logic behind this decision from people who have a background in or are aware of biblical scholarship...