Why is a women's testimony half a man's? Does it still apply today?
Question stated in the title.
Traditional explanations are just misogynistic, that women have worse memory, deficient and so...
Even if the rule is only about economical things - why does it exist? And applying it today...do we have to? If no - aren't we just changing religion? Isn't it really meant to be eternal?
Isn't the rule misogynistic... Why not a man=women. Why 2 women= 1 man....
I have heard some say that women were less involved in economics...but wasn't Khadija "a business woman"? Of course she may have been an exception but still... I don't really understand and fear being lied too, just because people want to save the faith...
If it's about the fact that women did not "participate" in economics then why doesn't the same rule apply regarding a "will" and so...
Like... I don't understand .. As said, Khadija a business woman...so what, based on the role, Would her testimony also be a half? Even though she knows everything that is relevant to the case?
Some also say that this applies to ALL testimonies (analogical reasoning...) which is even worse..